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  • Posts

    • 2. Christ Operating in the Godhead.
      Christ Operating in the Godhead. The next topic, I believe in relation to Christ & eschatology is the Divine Procession – how the Godhead operates. This I see will eventually lead to what they are doing & when that will happen. I`m interested in your thoughts. Here are mine –   We know that Jesus is part of the Godhead – Father, Son & Holy Spirit. Jesus is Equal with the Father – “For as the Father raises the dead & gives life to them, even so the Son gives life to whom He will.” (John 5: 21) Jesus has Unity with the Father –“I and my Father are one.” (John 10: 30) Jesus is of One Mind with the Father.  “....the word which you hear is not mine but the Father`s who sent me.` (John 14: 24)   Jesus is the Son of God & has intuitive insight & personal apprehension of the Father such as no one else possesses, which indicates His unity in Godhead. Only Deity can reveal Deity, only God can express Godhead, & only sonship can manifest fatherhood, because the very soul of sonship is likeness of will.  This is the basis of our belief in the Lord. However to properly understand eschatology we also need to know how the Godhead functions, how they operate. This is what I believe -   The Divine  Procession.   The Godhead  - At the source there is the provision by the whole Godhead,   The Father - with the initial movement of the Father; The Son - the administration of the Son; The Holy Spirit - and the direct agency of the Holy Spirit.     We may not have thought on this topic before but it is well worth the effort as it brings greater clarity, I believe, to what God is doing & how He will fulfill His purposes.   What are your thoughts? What scriptures show the individual operation by the Godhead members?   Marilyn.  
    • Why isn't the book of Maccabees included in the Bible?
      because its message is contradicting to Biblical texts. It is an interesting read, and of all the apocryphal books, I will say it is the most interesting read, especially from a historical viewpoint, but it has some serious doctrinal issues. In fact, maccabbees itself denies inspiration (maccabees 2:24-32)  maccabees, like all the apocryphal books, do not line up with scripture, and was simply included by the catholics to justify their false doctrines. They make interesting reading, but are not for doctrinal use.    Some further, yet interesting, reading.  http://www.bible.ca/catholic-apocrypha.htm
    • Hillary's campaign is tanking - CNBC
      unlikely....if biden was going to run he would have by now. 
    • 2Thessalonians2:6-7 explained
      OK Douggg, I had some time tonight, so let's see if I can't walk you through it all. Even though I know you don't want to read it all again and would like me just to tweet it here in 140 characters of less for you, but it really is a bit beyond that. So if you really want to understand, then follow along and I will take you through it piece by piece. 1.    All the above is to show the reader that the way Paul stated verses 5 and 6 was intentionally vague and distinctly different from Paul’s normal manner of addressing such things in his other epistles. 2.   This is to alert the reader that due to the vagueness of verses 5 and 6, it has given way in the last 100+ years to numerous theories that depart from what nearly a universal Protestant understanding of the subject matter of verses 7 and 8.

      Why? 3.    The above part of the article is inform the reader where the popular theology of today came from, the one that most “Protestant Christians” hold to today; and to show how the church has abandoned the perspective of earlier Protestant church fathers for that birth within the very ranks of that which they were protesting. Do you find that odd? 4.    This above part is to remind the reader that the early church fathers recognized that the Apostle John spoke of a “spirit of antichrist” as well as “many antichrists.” Not just one antichrist.       I find it interesting that almost everyone holding to this contemporary and popular endtime antichrist world figure is either ignorant or ignores the fact that John, who coined the phrase “antichristos,” or “antichrist,” never used the phrase in the Revelation of Jesus Christ. Ever wondered why that is Douggg? Can you think of a good answer for why the Holy Spirit who inspired him with the word in his 1st epistle didn't lead him to use it in the Book of Revelation? 5.    This is just a brief summary of the “two most popular theories” being held to by modern Christians. Pretty clear this one… 6.    The above is to remind the reader, that even though Paul was given visions and revelations, he nevertheless primarily preached from the scriptures. Therefore, what he told the Thessalonians when he was with them would have had scriptural foundation, like the Book of Daniel... 7.    The above is just further proof that not only did Paul always preach Christ, he taught the church concerning the things that were soon to come to past, and what laid ahead for the church in the ages to come, as well as the judgement upon Israel and up to the last trump and the resurrection of the dead. And he did so from the OT scriptures which he assured us are able to make us wise unto the salvation we have in Christ Jesus. Plus, in Paul’s exhortation to us he tells us that we too must prove everything scripturally if we are to avoid being led astray or succumb to unfounded deductions that have no solid scriptural/historical bases. 8.    The above clearly shows how Paul's teaching the Thessalonians sound doctrine was evident by their becoming sound in the faith and abounding in their “work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope.” For correctly preaching the truth changes people and makes them partakers of the divine nature; and doesn’t merely make them “theologians.” 9.    The part above reveals the historic scriptural setting in both Philippi and Thessalonica from which Paul and Silas were obligated to flee for their lives because of the hostility, and nature of the seriousness charges being laid against them. For these things may very well have profund bearing on why Paul was so vague and careful about what he wrote concerning those things he had clearly stated to them in person. 10.    Again, showing the concern of the brethren, as well as things we have scriptural leeway to conclude Paul would have been preaching to the Thessalonians as a "word in due season," Prophetic words which would have been in perfect harmony with the very words of Jesus Christ spoke concerning Israel and that generation. 11.    Simply further verification Paul ministered from extensiveely the scripture which also foretold the things spoken by Jesus Christ; and therefore by the authority of the scriptures Paul too warned the Jews that destruction was soon coming to Israel, Jerusalem, and the temple. 12.    Plus, as God judge Babylon and brought that empire to its end, so to could/would have Paul preached from scripture the fall of Rome after the destruction of the nation of Israel. 13. The above was just a summary of the things covered already… Still with me Douggg? (Not that I expect you to be agreeing, just following.)  14. As history bears record, the above shows how the fall of Rome (the empire) gave way to the rise of Roman Catholicism and the rise of the “man of sin, son of perdition.”  15.  Just a simple review with some text added in square brackets indicating my insertion of thought to help the reader see the plausible intent of Paul in the passage being discussed in this thread. However Douggg, even though I stated “In this light, it should be easy to see why it was wisdom for Paul to be elusive and not to write in his Epistle to the Thessalonians that Rome was going to have to fall first in order to make way for this great apostasy and the son of perdition,” I do understand many people today have a very difficult time following a multipoint, developing line of thought to its conclusion. Which, just once more, is basically that had such Paul's epistle been intercepted and delivered into the hands of Romans with him clearly stating Rome (the empire) must fall before the rise of the man of sin/son of perdition," well, it would have been all over for Paul. For he would have been charged with treason and therefore killed for preaching and conspiring the fall of Rome (the empire)... Got it?
         
    • Chaos - True or False?
      A very concise answer
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