This topic comes up on Christian forums around Easter every year like clockwork!
But I looked at the date of the OP and this thread was actually earlier! And every year it goes around and around in circles.
The way I see it, the issue of what 3 days means to people boils down to "inclusive reckoning" vs "actual 72 hours", and which theory they accept.
But for guys like me, I find it interesting in Scripture that Jesus actually defined the length of day (light):"Are there not twelve hours in the day?"
Ironically, those folks who believe in "inclusive reckoning" state the Western time concepts are different than Jewish. However, this statement about the hours in a day was a Jewish way of reckoning time
--- the Western nations as we know them were not even in existance yet. Because today we reckon the summer hours are longer, i.e. suppose Christ died in late April, there would be about 13 hours in a day by Western reckoning.
And also in that sense "3 days and 3 nights" to me ceases to be an idiom and I thus take the actual position.
I don't think the OP was actually answered. The closest I saw was a source authority quote that said that it could include parts of a day, not an actual documented event as the OP asked for. So when we are on the fence like this, I like to go to what Jesus stated, and as such John 11:9 was another precise mention of that matter (or else why say it?).
In addition, Everything had to be done by the feast days: Passover was the Lamb sacrificed, Unleavened Bread foreshadowed the first day in the tomb (the start of the 3 days) and Firstfruits (which began later in the week at sundown) foreshadowed His resurrection. Only a literal interpretation of Matthew 12:40 IMO fits this. Any other time line does not seem to satisfy Christ fulfilling them at the proper times, which were the very reasons for the feasts to begin with. That's my take, anyway.