Hello fellow posters,
this is not meant to reopen the other thread but to discuss one specific item out of it.
This is the quote, I'd like to refer to (see #128 of the "convert me"-thread):
God hears the pleas of his people in egypt, so he asks moses to lead them.
Then intentionally meddles with pharaohs freewill so that when moses pleads pharaohs says no again and again
Then Instead of punishing just the people that were involved in enslaving the hebrews, he kills babies, and children, doesnt matter if they live on the other side of the nation and have never even heard of a hebrew he kills them any way.
How does that fit with
1 john 4:8
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
My take on collective punishment by God:
the people of Egypt apparently didn't have anything against the collective punishment of the people of Israel (Exodus 5:6-10). Pharao ordered the punishment of the entire people just because of one man, Moses, having committed the "crime" of free speech in front of the Pharao.
God treated Egypt the way they apparently seemed to see fit.
My stance to the death of children:
If parents died back then, their children would die, too, to my knowledge. The last plague out of ten against the people of Egypt happened to be the decisive one, as I understand it. After that one, Israel was allowed to go. We, of course, don't know what would have happened, if this plague wouldn't have occured in the first place.
My guess, however: these children would have died anyway at this point of the story.
Have a good day,