Jump to content

christian forums

Worthy Christian Forums - Christian Forums

Welcome to Worthy Christian Forums
Register now to gain access to all of our features. Once registered and logged in, you will be able to create topics, post replies to existing threads, give reputation to your fellow members, get your own private messenger, post status updates, manage your profile and so much more. If you already have an account, login here - otherwise create an account for free today!

What Ancient Text Uses FOREknow to Imply Intimate Relationship?

* * * * * 1 votes

  • Please log in to reply
No replies to this topic



    Advanced Member

  • Advanced Member
  • PipPipPip
  • 360 posts
What Ancient Text Uses the Greek word proginōskō ("Foreknow" or "foreknowledge) to imply intimate relationship (as opposed to objective knowledge; that is, knowledge that something will happen)? I mean a text where the context demands an "intimate relationship" interpretation.

The Bible relates election to foreknowledge. One POV is that God knew in advance who would believe and thus chose them upon knowledge of their belief (e.g., Theissen's [moderately Calvinist] Systematic Theology). A standard Calvinist reply is that "knowledge" is a figurative term for intimacy, as in marriage or as in Amos where Israel alone was "known" by God.

The standard Greek lexicon BDAG even includes the meaning "choose beforehand," though BDAG gives no examples of such usage outside Romans 8 and 11. Such an interpretation seems wrong, as it involves a tautology, "choosing according to choosing." BAGD also includes "—Know from time past,"citing Acts 26:5 and Josephus' (War) Bell. 6, 8).

Basing a definition of a Greek word upon a Hebrew word in Amos is not good proof. Moreover, attempting to define a compound word (fore-know) from a meaning of the single root (know) is also dubious. Given that "know" has figurative meanings, that does not prove that a compound word which has the root "know" in it, shares those meanings. Take the word "understand." Can one really define that word based upon what "stand" means?

I would like someone to bring forth an example of where FOREknow (proginōskō) by context must mean anything other than objective knowledge in prior time.

Bible Quotes Below:

22 You men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, … him, being delivered up by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, you by the hand of lawless men did crucify and slay:

1Pet. 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the elect who are sojourners of the Dispersion…according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace

9 For whom he foreknew, he also foreordained to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren: 30 and whom he foreordained, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

2 God did not cast off his people which he foreknew. …I have left for myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to Baal.

you were redeemed, … with precious blood, as of a lamb without spot, even the blood of Christ: 20 who was foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world, but was manifested at the end of the times for your sake,


BTW, I do not pose this as a rhetorical question intended to put down the POV that foreknowledge means entering an intimate relationship with in eternity past by the Lord with His elect. I adopted that POV myself from an excellent Bible teacher years ago. However, I have become aware that said teacher's reference to Amos really does not prove the case.

Edited by Atwood, 17 April 2014 - 11:02 AM.

  • 1

0 user(s) are browsing this forum

0 members, 0 guests, 0 anonymous users

Worthy Christian Forums - Christian Message Boards - 1999-2015 part of the Worthy Network