Some of you who are more of Bible scholars can correct me if I am wrong with this, but isn't it true that when Jesus used the term fool that he was speaking in general terms and that his remarks where not directed specifically at individual/persons. I am sure that that would make a difference.
Then said he to the multitude that came forth to be baptized of him, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? Luke 3:7
But God said unto him, Thou fool, this night thy soul shall be required of thee: then whose shall those things be, which thou hast provided? Luke 12:20
Then he said unto them, O fools, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken:
Ought not Christ to have suffered these things, and to enter into his glory?
And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself. Luke 24:25-27
Let no man deceive himself. If any man among you seemeth to be wise in this world, let him become a fool, that he may be wise. For the wisdom of this world is foolishness with God. For it is written, He taketh the wise in their own craftiness. 1 Corinthians 3:18-19
God With His Kids Are All Calling Out, Run Sinner, Run
Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Matthew 11:28