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  • Latest Posts

    • Why do you assume they have added... Why doi you assume that someone studied it out properly... Do you trust in the infallability of the person/ persons who produced the concordance?  In whom do you trust?
    • If the KJV is inspired, why are so many words added by the translators? I've found some verses to have as many as 7 extra words in a verse, changing the meaning of the verse. And many verses are not accurate when studied out properly, the idea of the verse or what it is meaning. I only use the KJV but will always use the concordance as proof of what verses mean, not trusting man's interpretation because even they are sometimes wrong.  
    • I don't think you understand that i believe the KJV is the inspired Word of God... As for the NIV and NLT i do not recognise them as being inspired..
    • That is ridiculous. By that logic you should reject every part of the Bible that says anything you can't explain or understand.   Jesus is the Son of God and that means that Jesus is God.   They are not two gods.   They are one God but two distinct persons, three persons if you include the Holy Spirit. The fact that we cannot explain it, is not an excuse for rejecting it.  Otherwise you must reject everything the Bible says about God that you cannot explain. The Bible is not written on a child's level, as if everything in it is so simplistic.  It contains doctrine and truth that require a certain about amount of spiritual maturity to believe.  The Trinity is one of those doctrines. No, Jesus is the fullness of God in character AND essence or essential being.   He is as much God as the Father.  They are one essence and character but distinct in personhood.   That is Bible 101.    No, that is not what it says. It may include a disposition of mind.  No comparison with Adam is made in the passage. Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.(Php 2:5-8) He made himself a servant.  He didn't just take on the attitude of a servant.  He is referred to as the servant of the Lord in the OT.   The Greek for 'made Himself of no reputation" is a word that means that Jesus emptied Himself.  Emptied Himself of what?    The Greek of v.6 tells us that although being equal with God, did not see His deity as something to exploit to His own advantage.  So He emptied Himself of divine prerogative.   He was still God, still equal with God, but temporarily surrendered certain areas of divine privilege so that He could model what it looks like to live in complete dependence on the Father.   Jesus is called "God" in so many places in the NT and in the OT, that to deny His deity is nothing short of intellectual suicide. He was made in the likeness of man.  He didn't just take on the disposition of a man.  He became a man.   He humbled Himself and became obedient to death.   Why if Jesus was just a man would He need to make Himself obedient to death?  The verbs indicate that these things happened as a result of Jesus' will.  They were not imposed upon Him at birth like they are imposed on us.  Jesus birth into this world was an act of His will, which tells that He preexisted His human birth.   Jesus even tells us that He preexisted His birth in John 17:   "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." (Joh 17:5)
        That is a distinction without a difference. Yeah, I speak and read Hebrew and you clearly do not know what you're talking about.  The word Elohim is like a lot of Hebrews that play double, triple and quadruple duty.   Hebrew is a very nuanced language and very precise and Elohim is a word that in certain contexts, denotes certain things.   It is applied to angels, humans, false gods/idols, and God himself and context is the determiner of which usage applies to a given text/verse.  "Son of God" does not distinguish the nature of Jesus from the nature of God.  It distinguishes their role in the Godhead.   But "Son of" also denotes deity and it shows that Jesus is of the same essential nature with the Father.  Irrelevant. No, the comments of Jesus in John 10: 30-36 was actually defense of Jesus calling Himself the Son of God.   Jesus was actually defending His claim to deity.  The Jewish leaders understood "Son of God" to be a reference to deity and Jesus basically doubled down on that claim in His statements in these verses.   I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.(Joh 10:30-33)
        Jesus said in v. 30, "I and my Father are one."  The word for "one" in Greek (en) is a word that refers to "one in essence"  The Jews understood that to be  claim to deity.   That's why they wanted to stone him.  They said that He was blaspheming by making himself God.   Jesus didn't correct them, or contradict them.   Instead Jesus doubled down on that claim.  And they still tried to capture Him after that.  In reference to vv. 34-36, If God called them gods, are you therefore saying, He whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world blasphemes because He said, “I am the Son of God?”   
    • ‘Because to every purpose there is time and judgment, 
      therefore the misery of man is great on him.’ 
      (Ecclesiastes 8:6)  
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