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    • "I think scripture says that Satan is loosed to deceive the nations including Gog and Magog. Your take would have Satan deceiving himself. Soooo....no, Satan is not Gog."   Satan is Gog son .... Ezekiel 38; 39; and Revelation 20:7-10 He is the top leader of the rebellion against the Lord 
    • No, not really, the Days of Noah was compared to the Pre Tribulation Rapture, as I have explained on multiple occasions. The Second Coming will NOT be preceded by people Marrying, eating, partying etc. etc. the whole picture being painted lends to a surprise, hence they were acting naturally or normal, that will not be the case at the Second Coming, Gods Wrath will be upon the Wicked, so that is like saying those in the Flood Waters were Marrying and giving in Marriage, which is of course ludicrous, we know that just can't be the case.  Jesus related the Rapture to as the Days of Noah. No they aren't, that comes from not understanding what was put forth in the scriptures. Maybe its the Old Englishe, maybe its the translation, or the authors writing style, whatever the reason, I understand so I think others should understand it also. Paul is just sating we all come to God BY FAITH, nowhere is he saying that Israel are now Gentiles. God Deals with Israel AFTER the Church has been Raptured, they are BLINDED until the time of the Gentiles is come full. God deals with Israel AFTER THE RAPTURE, during the 70th Week, these are just facts. It really doesn't matter to God who understands them pr not, Hes going to go forth with His plans anyway. No, it is a 7 YEAR EVENT.......Just like the Jewish Groom & Bride stay in the Marriage Chambers for 7 Days.  The 70th Week is 7 Years. The Marriage is a 7 Year Event in Heaven.  I never stated that......SHOW IT TO ME..........I understand the Marriage Supper is ARMAGEDDON........On Earth. The Marriage is in Heaven, that happens BEFORE Rev. chapters 4 and 5, where we see the Church with White Robes/Raiment on.  You do not seem to understand it, else you would understand it can not exist without a Pre-Tribulation Rapture.
    • Well, i wrote a long impression for this thread then accidentally hit a wrong button which opened a new page, then when i backed up, my post is gone.   Thats so frustrating. So, the shorter and less patient version, is now here. First of all, if we go to Google and search any bible verse, we open a page that allows us to compare a lot of bible's regarding whatever verse we choose.  And the fact is, most of them, are going to say it differently......so, is that adding to and subtracting from?............ And if so, then  this means, that you have to have one BIBLE and GREEK TEXT standard by which you judge ALL the others.....and what is that for you?......A KJV?........A NIV?........... A ASV?......  So, which one are you going to use to prove that because this person's verse does not match your favorite bible version's Old Testamant's  vernacular, you can then say.....>"oppps, anathema"........    And i guess that you realize that every "new" bible translation that appears, is described as...>"making the translation easier to understand"....So, is that not the essence of changing the words in a bible?       So, now we have this guy, and his translation, which is probably more of a transliteration, such as the "living Bible", then it is a translation.    So, is the living Bible "anathema"?, as nearly all the words are changed in it, as compared to any other  "bible". No, the relevant issue is .... = what happens when you change a word.....so that the verse, is altered ...doctrinally......= as this is the "anathema". FOR EXAMPLE..... If i take a KJV, and find this verse in 1st Tim...>"God was manifested in the flesh"...... then we have a correct translation......However, if i take the NIV, then we find this....>"He who, was manifested"......So, HERE you have a mangling of the verse, a mistranslation,  and a twisting of the doctrine, = so that you have an anathema...... As this verse, in this bible, has altered the very doctrine that "Jesus is God"....... So, thats a problem for all who use the NIV. Now what about this guy, who translated-transliterated this verse.    Well, im trying to think inside his head, and what i think he did, is translated it, through the filter of the New Testament in some cases........ I think he is mentally connecting a verse like this.....>"and 2 shall be one flesh"........ or where Jesus says..."God in me, and I in them, and all in God, are ONE"..   Or a verse that says...."we are Joint heirs with Christ".........or...."so as Jesus IS< so are WE in this world"........or "bone of his bones and flesh of Jesus's flesh are we".........   So, i think he is sort of overlapping our "one" with God "in Christ", and putting this word "equal", in his OT verse.    Honestly, Saint, there is a much bigger problem with having so many bibles that dont really speak the same regarding NT doctrines, that is much more subversive to genuine Christianity......And it could be that this person's personally translated version is one that regarding Pauline Theology, is going to be a complete fail.    So, what i would do with it, is look at specific verses that relate to Jesus <> Paul's doctrines, and see if the person change them to suit his pentecostal - charismatic theological point of view.  As that is what they usually do wrong, when they get it really wrong. Just my 2 cents.     <B><
    • My experience paralleled that of Neighbor, as an agnostic I had no thoughts, no fear, no desire or craving for God. Perhaps your experience told you otherwise but experience is a poor foundation to learn doctrine from.
    • Them two got darkness inside them .   Thems men of belial ,   ORDERING GOD around , MAKING themselves THE AUTHORITY .  THEY are men of belial.   And I shun their doctrines right to the pits .   Right to the pits .
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