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philwynk

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About philwynk

  • Birthday 09/15/1954

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    Christian apologetics, philosophy, politics, cosmology, chess, music (I play bass guitar), sound engineering, writing

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  1. Jewels7 wrote: I think you misunderstand a few things. Jesus, while he was alive as a man in Judea, was specifically called to minister to Jews. But after His resurrection, He announced that He held full authority over everybody, both Jews and Gentiles. Recall the Great Commission: The part where He says "All authority...has been given to Me" makes Him the Lord of all nations, not just the nation of Israel. The part where He says "make disciples of every nation" indicates that His disciples are to make converts outside the nation of Israel as well as inside it. The part where He says "baptizing them into the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit" makes it clear that what they're being introduced into is not strictly 1st century Judaism, since the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit is not strictly part of 1st century Judaism. Trinitarian faith is something a bit different from the Jewish Law. Jesus actually said a fair amount about 1st century Jewish law, most of it negative. However, you are correct when you note that the Christ's teachings had their root in OT Judaism. He was quite clear that His source was God, the Father, and the Hebrew scriptures. Notice what He says in the Sermon on the Mount: This can be confusing if you don't know how Jews spoke of their scriptures in the 1st century. Did you notice how He mentioned both the Law and the Prophets? He was not talking about the Jewish Law that Paul spoke about; "the Law and the Prophets" was the 1st century Jewish shorthand way to refer to the Hebrew scriptures, what we would call "Old Testament" or Jews would call "tanakh." There were three sections in the Jewish canon, called "Law," "Prophets," and "Writings" (in Hebrew, "Torah," "Nevi'im," and "Ketuvim." The first letter of each forms the consonants TNK, from which they derive the word "tanakh.") When they made a reference to their canon of scripture, they didn't say "Bible" (that's an Anglicized version of the Latin "biblia" or the Greek "biblos") they said "The Law and the Prophets," or "The Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms," or "Moses and the Prophets," or something like that. What Jesus was saying here is that the scripture would never cease to be authoritative. He actually said, though, that the Jewish Law was not what He meant. That's why He said "Unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven." The righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees was defined by what Paul called "the Law." THAT Law was imperfect; Jesus was saying that God's perfect Law would never change. The part where the Holy Spirit makes it clear that the Gentiles do not have to become Jews occurs first in Acts 10 and 11, and then gets added to in Acts 15. In Acts 15, the Jerusalem Council meets and decides that Gentiles need not obey the Jewish law but need simply refrain from pagan religious service to the demons. That's more or less what is meant by the declaration in Acts 15:28-29. Sorry that was so long.
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