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Lee_

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About Lee_

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  1. Did Jesus pay for our sins? If so, how did He pay for them?
  2. Is Jesus the propitiation for the sins of the whole world? If so, what does it mean that Jesus is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world?
  3. Is the payment we would pay for our sins just the lake of fire? Are some people going to be put in the lake of fire without dying, or is that incorrect?
  4. Is this correct? That we've accrued a debt through our sins (which if we paid ourselves would be paid with our death and eventual place in the lake of fire) and that Jesus paid the debt with His death and shed blood on the cross?
  5. Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins (am I correct about that?). Would it be correct to look at it that Jesus shed His blood so we wouldn't have to shed ours? Or is it a sacrificial thing, like without the shedding of the blood of a sacrifice there is no forgiveness of sins? Also does the shedding of blood imply that whatever is shedding the blood must die?
  6. Our sins are legally paid for because Jesus died for our sins and shed His blood for our sins? (did I get the shed blood part right?)
  7. Are our sins legally paid for because He died for our sins (in the sense of 1 Corinthians 15:3)?
  8. Jesus died for our sins to take the punishment for our sins, correct? Was there any other reason (or reasons) why Jesus died for our sins?
  9. Does that mean Jesus took the punishment for our sins?
  10. Could someone really break this down for me (or maybe more than one person)? Edit: Might not have used "atone for our sins" right because I guess maybe faith is also needed for our sins to be atoned for.
  11. Are there any differences between the members of the Trinity? Hebrews 13:8 says that Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever. Is this also true of the Father and the Holy Spirit?
  12. Hello, I have a couple of questions. Did Jesus take the punishment for our sins? Did Jesus take the wrath of God for us? Please bear with me if either of these questions seem unnecessary when considering a past question or past questions I've asked.
  13. Well some people believe that He only died for some, this doesn't seem to go with 1 John 2:2. I'm learning and I'm leaning towards that He died for everyone.
  14. 1 John 2:2 would seem to suggest that Christ died for everyone, how could he have only died for some?
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