jenwat3

This is wrong. The Bible ALWAYS refers to the Holy Spirit as person and a "being." The Holy Spirit can be grieved and lied to. He can be communed with and is also called a comforter and a teacher. The Holy Spirit is referred to as omnipresent in Psalm 139:7-10. He is said to lead us to Christ. In Roman 8:27, he is said to have a mind, and He is called God in 1 Corinthians 6:19. The Holy Spirit can speak according to Acts 1:16. Those are just a few examples, but I could list several more. The Holy Spirit fits the description of an actual being or person. The Holy Spirit is NEVER refer to as an "it" or an impersonal force like "the power of God." You need to have a more biblical based understanding of the Holy Spirit. Thank you for clarifying this .. Jenwatt please explain : Why is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit as the "unforgivable sin"? The unforgivable sin is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit. It is knowing that someone is working and performing miracles with the power of God, and denying that the power is actually from God, but calling it the work of the devil. This is what the Pharisees did with Christ. They knew He was a Man of God, and that His power came from God, yet they ridiculed Him and said He was casting out demons through the power of Satan.

I have a few questions of my own to ask. 1)How does the Father send the Son if they are the same being? 2)How could Christ be doing the will of the Father if they were the same being? Would He not be doing His own will? 3)How could Christ be our mediator if He is one part of a single being, meaning ALL parts would have the same thoughts and feelings! If Christ is one-third of the trinity, one part of God's mind would be mediating to the other 2 parts of the same mind. 4)God expects Christians to "grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ". 2 Peter 3:18. If the Holy Spirit is a being, how can it be increased within the Christian who has it? 5)luke 11:13 makes plain that the Holy Spirit is given by God to those who ask for it. It has to be something that God gives, it isn't a being that comes of it's own volition. In the O.T., the word "holy" is translated from the Hebrew word "qodesh", meaning "a sacred place or thing", and "spirit" is translated from the Hebrew word "ruach", meaning "wind, breath, or life". In the N.T., the word "holy" is translated from the Greek word "hagios", meaning "sacred", and the word "spirit" is translated from the word "pneuma", meaning "current of air, breath, or breeze". In these cases, we see that the Holy Spirit is Holy (because it is God's), and Spirit (because it is like wind).

This is wrong. The Bible ALWAYS refers to the Holy Spirit as person and a "being." The Holy Spirit can be grieved and lied to. He can be communed with and is also called a comforter and a teacher. The Holy Spirit is referred to as omnipresent in Psalm 139:7-10. He is said to lead us to Christ. In Roman 8:27, he is said to have a mind, and He is called God in 1 Corinthians 6:19. The Holy Spirit can speak according to Acts 1:16. Those are just a few examples, but I could list several more. The Holy Spirit fits the description of an actual being or person. The Holy Spirit is NEVER refer to as an "it" or an impersonal force like "the power of God." You need to have a more biblical based understanding of the Holy Spirit. With all due respect, Shiloh, my understanding is biblical. The power of God can comfort and teach. When we have the Holy Spirit within us, it can be lied to.

Then please explain this scripture. 1 John 5:6-7 This is He who came by water and blood

Actually, IMO, the Holy Spirit isn't an actual being. It is the unity and one-ness that God and Christ share. It is, in layman's terms, the power of God. And Christ and God are two separate beings, one family.

That is indeed the question Jenwat. There are some possibilities... Any particular ideas, Richard? I have my own theory, but what is yours? Pm if you don't want to post out loud. May I have a little time to think through my answer before giving it? Of course not! I want an answer immediately!

That is indeed the question Jenwat. There are some possibilities... Any particular ideas, Richard? I have my own theory, but what is yours? Pm if you don't want to post out loud.

What is the one thing, though, that would set Christians apart, and make them unable to buy or sell? Possibly even be unable to hold a job, since they would have no money to buy, or be unable to sell anything?

This is not intended to be rude but to make people stop and think what they are saying compared to what scripture teaches so, let's use a little common sense here, shall we? Why would God or the devil even, need a physical mark to identify when they have very clear eyes for both the physical and the spiritual? people are already bearing the seal or the mark....it's called fruit of the (s)Spirit and that is how we are told we can identify one another. Nope, no physical marks, implants being forced on someone could not be considered simply because we are all given the choice to whom we serve....makes no sense that a forced implantation would be the mark of the beast since people must choose their master..... Amen to that. The actual MOB is disobedience to God. God's mark is obedience.

Does anyone have a full grasp of exactly who God is? Does any denomination have it "exactly right"? There are so many denominations today, how does one determine the true Church?

No, easter bunnies and colored eggs = evil Christian eggs, cookies and rolls = good You got that right! But "christian eggs"? Never heard that term before...

Regarding Easter: I will leave that to the conscience of each to decide for themselves. For myself, I do not partake. Well, ok. I had meant for this to be a p.m. answer.

How awful. But in your last sentence, the sentence may be carried out by beheading. An eye for an eye?

Well said. As far as Joseph being unclean, I am not sure about that. But as it does state that the body had to be buried quickly, before the sunset, He was buried before the sun went down. So He would have risen 3 days later, on Saturday, before the sun went down. Or just barely making it before the sunset.

The English TERM yes, is derived from the word East which is believed to be derived by Bede. I realize that Pesach means passover, but go to Greece today and this is the term for Easter. Read the rest of Catholic Encyclopedia article that you like to quote-mine from and it will tell you this. Again, as stated previously, there is no original Greek word for Passover, so Easter was a substitute. The word does not mean Easter.