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Found 4 results

  1. Robert Skynner xx xxxxx Road Launceston Cornwall xxxx xxxx 28th October 1999 Dear Alan, I hope that you are well, and thank you for your letter that I received last month. I am however, puzzled by a few of the comments in several of the Watchtower society books that I have recently purchased. As I have a scanner, I have scanned the relevant passages and was wondering if you could please help me, with some of these strange comments and also in my own humble opinion ‘unbiblical’ statements. Firstly, I have enclosed below a photocopy taken from: ‘Then is finished the mystery of God’ page 222. You will notice that it uses one of Satan’s ‘names’; ‘Apollyon’ for Jesus Christ! The point that I have difficulty accepting here, is simply that Jesus Christ is not Satan, and that I find the application of one of Satan’s names to Jehovah’s Son highly disrespectful. On the next page (223), this same book states that JW’s, are symbolised as following Apollyon out of the bottomless pit. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) The next scan has been taken from page 223 of the same book. The symbolic locusts from the pit of the abyss who accompany Apollyon are supposed to be Jehovah’s Witnesses !!! (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) Another photocopy (below) is taken from the book ‘Deliverance,’ it states on the fifth unnumbered page that at one time Jesus and Lucifer were brothers !!!! I most certainly do not believe this, and find it a most offensive comment indeed. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) I find these comments about who Jesus is very dubious, but especially so in the light of the fact that the Watchtower, makes audacious claims for itself. In the scan below taken from the Watchtower of 4/1/72 page 197, the Watchtower claims that it is an inspired prophet. If the Watchtower is a prophet, that speaks for God, I must ask you Alan, why then has it made changes and mistakes. Does God lie or makes mistakes? Certainly not in the light of Deuteronomy 13:1-5, 18:18-20 and Isaiah 8:20. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) In the following quote (below) Watchtower May 1st 1957, page 274, the Watchtower society is likened to a ‘Mother’ in a very similar way that the heretical mediaeval Roman Catholic Church also called itself ‘Mother Church’ to whom one went for salvation …. or so those poor deluded Roman Catholics believed! (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) In the middle ages, the medieval Roman Catholic Church taught that one had to go to their religious organisations for salvation, rather than go to his Son for salvation (Acts 4:12). It is therefore strange that the Watchtower makes a very similar claim below. The Watchtower 15th November 1981, page 21 (below). (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) In the following quote has been taken from The Watchtower 15th February 1981, page 19. The Watchtower Society takes the place of the ‘Holy Spirit’, (John 16:13), by leading us into ‘all truth’. This again is very similar to the claims of the Roman Catholics, and most modern sects such as the ‘Mormons’, which would claim that only their religious organisation can lead us to Christ, who in turn then leads us to Jehovah (God). Thus the Bible is the word of God (for RC’s) as the Pope will claim, but only he being an apostle of Christ and successor of Peter, is inspired by God to interpret Scripture for us. Likewise the Mormons will also admit that the Bible is God’s word, but they also regard it as a closed book, that can only understood by their leader and prophet in Utah, USA. Who speaks to us through the book of Mormon, and the other Mormon literature and publications. Thus both of these religions claim, that Jesus is the only way to the Father, yet also affirm that their religion is the only way to Jesus. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) Here the Society claims in the 1983 yearbook of JW, on page 21, that a man-inspired magazine is the sole interpreter of the Bible. This is similar to the Pope claiming that he and he alone is the sole interpretator of the Scriptures, the Mormons claiming the same for their leader, the Moonies claiming the same of Rev Moon etc and etc. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) Here in Vindication Book 3, page 250, and published 1932. Judge Rutherford claims to receive ‘angelic messages’ from angels who directly pass on instructions from Jehovah God to leaders of the society. I should not have to point out to you Alan that spiritism (contact with spirit beings) is strictly forbidden in the Scriptures. (I cannot post scans from this word document into Worthy Christian Forums) Thank you very much for taking the time to read this letter. I would be most grateful if you would take to time to reply to these concerns of mine. I am anxious to find out why the Watchtower makes claims for itself and its authority which are so very similar to that of the Pope and Roman Catholic system. Yours sincerely Robert Skynner
  2. Robert xxxxxx xxx xxxx House xxxxx Street Plymouth xxxx xxxx thebagge2@yahoo.co.uk Dear Robert, How are you? I hope that you are keeping well. I was wondering if I could please ask a small favour of you. I’m after a copy of the July 2008 Watchtower (an article on faith – or is it July 2007?) as well as page 14 from the 15th Sept 2002 Watchtower. I hope that you don’t mind me asking you this; I enclose some stamps to cover the cost. Feel free to pass my details onto whoever you see fit, if for instance you know of someone in my area who might have these Watchtowers. I’m also very interested in the Watchtowers position on Jehovah. I believe that they teach that Jehovah isn’t omnipresent: 5th Feb 1981 page 6. So I was wondering if somebody could please help me with a study re his other attributes – is Jehovah (Father) almighty (i.e. omnipotent), creator, omniscient etc. If Jehovah isn’t omnipresent but he is almighty then how can this be? For if the Holy Spirit is omnipresent but ‘it’ isn’t almighty, then wouldn’t that make the Holy Spirit in one sense be more almighty (with regard to the attribute of Omnipresence) than the Father (Jehovah)? So how can the Father be almighty (which literally means all power) and yet Jehovah lacks the power to be omnipresent; just as the Holy Spirit is omnipresent? Is anyone able to help me with this? Thank you Robert for your kind help, I’m extremely grateful to you. Yours Faithfully XXXXX XXXXXXX
  3. Robert Skynner 166 Tamar House James Street Plymouth PL1 4HJ 15th February 2012 Dear Richard, I’ve been looking at the Scriptures for with regard to Michael the Archangel. Here is he result of my studies. Scripture mentions Michael five times at: Daniel 10:13, 21, 12:1, Jude 9 and Revelation 12:7. Michael is addressed as ‘Archangel’ (meaning the chief angel) at Jude 9. However, at none of these five verses is it stated or even hinted, that Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel. From my copies of Russell’s (Zion’s) Watchtower, the Watchtower did for a long time teach that Michael was not the Michael: (Zion’s Watchtower, November 1879, page 48) – see the scan below: (unfortunately this scan won't copy from word). 1. At both Acts 17:31 and 1st Timothy 2:5, Jesus Christ in his post-resurrection state is described as ‘a man’ which is the Greek word ἄνθρωπος anthrōpos this word is numbered G444 in Strongs Concordance. However, the Watchtower contradicts this by claiming that Christ in the year 1914 defeated Satan as an angel, that is as Michael the archangel and not as a resurrected and glorified man: Revelation its Grand Climax at Hand, page 181, section 16. This claim is further undermined at Matthew 24:30, Mark 13:26 and Luke 21:27, where Christ is at his second coming is described with the messianic title; ‘The Son of Man,’ however, angels aren’t human beings and so angels cannot be described as the ‘Sons of men.’ 2. Hebrews 1:4 states that Jesus Christ isn’t an angel, because he is: “so much better than the angels.” The context is given at verse three, where the representation of an image made by a seal in wax is made, to illustrate the fact that Christ and the Father both share the same divine nature. This is why Christ is superior to the angels. 3. The angels always refuse to accept any worship which is directed towards them, see Revelation 22:8-9. And yet at Hebrews 1:6 God the Father directly commands the angels to worship his Son; Jesus Christ. “Let all the angels of God worship him” (Hebrews 1:6, 1961 edition NWT, also all other modern and ancient translations). 4. Michael the Archangel was unable to rebuke Satan, and instead he said to him; ‘the Lord rebuke you’ (Jude 9, TEB), also translated as ‘may Jehovah rebuke you’ (Jude 9, NWT 1961 edition). Yet Jesus Christ did rebuke Satan, and he clearly did so himself at Matthew 4:10, where the 1961 edition NWT states that Christ rebuked Satan by stating: “Go away Satan! For it is written, ‘it is Jehovah your God you must worship, and to him alone you must render service.’ ” 5. At Daniel 10:13 Michael isn’t identified as God’s Son, and neither is he spoken of as being unique in any sense whatsoever. For Michael is here identified in the plural as “one of the chief princes.” So because Michael is only one angel amongst a company of fellow senior angels, just as Daniel 10:13 states. So Christ, who is uniquely the μονογενής monogenēs ‘only begotten Son’ of God (John 3:16, 3:18, 1st John 4:9-14) and that by his uniquely (ontological) nature which he shares with the Father (Hebrews 1:3), cannot also at the very same time also be Michael, who is just one senior angel amongst a company of other similar (higher) angelic beings. 6. At Hebrews 1:13 God the Father here makes a direct quotation of Psalm 110:1 and he then directly applies this to Jesus Christ: “But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?” Now if Christ were really Michael the archangel, then this verse wouldn’t make any sense. For the entire purport of this passage is to state that Christ only sits at his Father’s right hand, which in Jewish terminology means a position of rank and authority, because he is uniquely God’s Son (which archangels are not). 7. We read at Hebrews 2:5 concerning the world to come, which Jehovah’s Witnesses interpret as the promised paradise earth that it won’t be a world which will be in subjection to the angels. However, at Hebrews 2:8, of this coming age we read that all things, which must surely include the new earth itself, will then be in complete subjection to Jesus Christ. So Christ cannot be an angel, or else they’d be a direct contradiction at Hebrews chapter 2 between verses 5 and 8. 8. How can Jesus be Michael the Archangel, when according to John 14:9 to see Jesus Christ is to see God the Father: “He who has seen me has seen the Father.” However, a mere archangel, who isn’t Yahweh God, cannot reveal Yahweh to us, for only Yahweh himself can genuinely reveal himself to us! Could you the reader, reveal Yahweh God to another by the sheer force of your own will? Of course not, and for the obvious reason that because the reader isn’t God therefore he or she cannot reveal someone who they are not, for it is only possible to reveal yourself to another. 9. 1st Corinthians 6:3 speaking of God’s people, states that they will soon judge angels: “Know ye not that we shall judge angels?” However, if Jesus Christ is the Archangel Michael, who became this angel once again after his crucifixion, when his body dissolved into gasses, but was then recreated by Jehovah as the archangel Michael. Then to be consistent shouldn’t Jehovah’s Witnesses claim that one day they’ll judge Jesus Christ, if he’s an angel himself, in the light of 1st Corinthians 6:3. 10. When Christ returns to this earth at his second coming, we are told at 1st John 3:2 of our own resurrections; “that we shall be like him.” However, as I’ve already mentioned, the Bible states very clearly at both: Acts 17:31 and 1st Timothy 2:5 that Christ in his post-resurrection state is described as ‘a man’ (ἄνθρωπος anthrōpos). However, the Jehovah’s Witnesses teach that Jesus Christ was recreated by Jehovah as an archangel at his resurrection (he was not resurrected as a man). Then because we shall be like him, if Christ is now an archangel, then that would mean that on their paradise earth, all Jehovah’s Witnesses would likewise also lose their human natures, being instead remade into angels themselves, just like their own version of Jesus! 11. The Revelation book on page 181, section 15, applies 1st Thessalonians 4:16 to Jesus and then makes the claim that this archangel is Jesus Christ. But this text does not state that the archangel is the Lord (Jesus) who descends from heaven, anymore than it states that the Lord (Jesus) who descends from heaven is a trumpet or a voice. The shout of the archangel and the trumpet of God both announce Christ’s return; but they are not Christ himself. If the Watchtower Society is to be consistent, they they ought to concede that if Christ is the archangel then he is also a trumpet! The – οῦ suffix ending in Greek, which is used of both the archangel ἀρχαγγέλου and also of God θεοῦ at 1st Thessaolonians 4:16, is a genitive singular which implies a grammatical possession. See the back cover of the Purple edition of the Kingdom Interlinear Translation where a grammar sheet is provided at the bottom of the back cover. So the shout is the archangel’s voice and the trumpet is God’s announcement according to the use of this genitive singular tense. Finally. Speaking of Jesus Christ’s human body, Paul at 1st Corinthians 15:44 does not claim that Christ rose from the dead as a ‘spirit,’ nut instead he tells us that at his resurrection, that Jesus rose as a ‘spiritual’ (πνευματικός pneumatikos) body (σῶμα sōma). This word pnumaticos means ‘spirit controlled,’ as in the instance of the rock which Moses struck 1st Corinthians 10:4, this rock was a literal rock and it wasn’t something composed out of spirit. The word ‘soma’ (body) in the singular tense always means a physical body, and this word never means ‘a spirit’ or something non-physical (such as a ghost), when its used in the singular, which is why Christ is then called a man (anthropos) three times at 1st Corinthians 15:47-49. So at his resurrection, from Yahweh his Father (who is a divine Spirit), and through Christ who is this same Divine Spirit; Jesus could now bestow everlasting life upon his elect, so he thus became a life-giving Spirit (verse 45), whilst at the very same time he also rose as a man with a genuine physical body (soma) which was spiritually dominated (pnumaticos) by the divine spirit. Thank you Robert XXXXX FOLKS, I SEE JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES OUT ON THE STREETS DOING THEIR CART WORK HERE IN PLYMOUTH, UK. WE NEED TO CHALLENGE THEM.
  4. Robert xxxxxxx Flat xxx xxxx House xxxxxx Street Plymouth xxx xxxx 13th May 2017 thebagge2@yahoo.co.uk Dear Eddie, Thank you for the gift of the silver NWT Bible, it would be great if you would kindly explain one problem which I, ,a Trinitarian, have with it, namely John 8:58: “Jesus said to them, most truly, I say unto you, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” (John 8:58, NWT, 2013 ed). The New World Translation (NWT) of the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, is the only Bible which mistranslates the Greek: "ego eimi," (this is the first person singular present tense of the verb "to be"), of John 8:58, as: "I have been?" All other versions of the Bible translate it correctly as "I am," and even the New World Translation itself, translates "ego eimi," consistently and accurately as "I am," elsewhere throughout the New Testament, i.e. at John 8:24, 9:5 and 9:9; which predate and postdate this verse! Why "ego eimi," means "I am" at every occurrence bar one is a puzzle to me, especially when the Watchtower Society has no Greek or Hebrew scholars which they can name. The NWT isn't translated by educated and reliable scholars with degrees, but by amateurs who possess no genuine knowledge of Greek and Hebrew. However, this problem is greatly compounded for the Watchtower Society, when one considers the differing marginal notes of four claimed Greek tenses, which have been used to explain the mistranslation of "ego eimi," as "I am." The 1950 NWT edition of the Greek Scriptures, on page 312, explains the Greek: "ego eimi," here as a perfect indefinite tense, a tense which does not exist in Greek, or even in any other language. The NWT 1960 Bible on page 3108, explains this as an aorist indefinite. In the 1969 (Purple) edition of the Kingdom Interlinear on page 467, this tense was now changed to the perfect tense, some nineteen years later and after millions of Bible printings which contain the earlier nonexistent tense! Then in 1985, the (Blue) edition of the Kingdom Interlinear on page 451, changes this to the perfect indicative. This is the fourth claimed tense! Eddie, I enclose scans of these books. If you are unable to get hold of these books then please do visit me, and I can show you these originals. Yours Sincerely
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