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Found 3 results

  1. It has become plainly apparent that many translations intentionally mistranslate verses to support the trinity. Collosians 1:16 being no exception. Here is what Collosians 1:16 says in the King James version and many other versions as well... Colossians 1:16 King James Version (KJV) 16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: Notice the words I bolded, especially the first "by" and the second "in." Now what if I told you that the same word translated as "by" in this verse is the same word that is correctly translated as "in" in the same verse? If you don't believe me, see for yourself... http://biblehub.com/interlinear/colossians/1-16.htm And the Greek word for "in" here (ἐν) which is erroneously translated as "by" by the King James and many other versions literally mean "in"... http://biblehub.com/greek/1722.htm Ironically the Greek word for "in," "ἐν"(transliterated as "en") which always means "in" except in verses where proper syntax in needed, is 99.9% of the time translated as "in" everywhere else in the Bible by these same translations... http://biblehub.com/greek/en_1722.htm To incorrectly translate the Greek word "ἐν" which means "in" as "by" in this verse completely misleads the reader because it tries to make it sound like Jesus helped in the creation, a notion debunked by Isaiah 44:24. The second time the word "by" appears in this verse is also mistranslated from the Greek word "δι"(transliterated as "dia") which actually means "through" and/or "on account of". http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/1223.htm The New International Version(NIV), which is a translation that is no foe to the doctrine of the trinity, correcty translates Collosians 1:16 as this... "For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him." The Latin Vulgate also accurately translates the word there as "in." The correct translation actually beautifully fits in with the reat of Scripture. The phrase, “in him were all things created” proves that all of God’s creation was created “on account of him”, (on account of Jesus the Messiah). All created things were first “placed together” “in him” (in the Messiah) “in advance of all” things which were later physically created because God first created His detailed blueprint for all of His creation “in him”, “on account of him”, and “for him.” In this light we can understand why Jesus said in Revelation 3:14 that he is “the beginning of the creation of God” in God’s mental conception and why the apostle John wrote that Jesus was already “the Lamb which was slain from the foundation of the world (Rev. 13:8)” before the Lamb of God was actually slain. Paul could not have been referring to the Genesis act of creation in Colossians 1:16 because human thrones, lords, rulers, and authorities were not literally walking around in the Garden of Eden in Genesis chapter one. The context of the Greek grammar in Colossians 1:16-17 proves that Paul was addressing the pre-creation or foreordination of all human ages “in” the Messiah, “on account of” the Messiah and “for” the Messiah before the human ages actually took place. This helps us make sense of other Scripture: Ephesians 1:4-5 “For He chose us in him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence. In love He predestined us for adoption as His sons through Jesus Christ…” Ephesians 1:4-5 describes our Heavenly Father as having already “predestined” His elect “IN (en) Him (Christ)” and “through (dia) Jesus Christ” “before the foundation of the world.” Ephesians 1:4-5, “He chose us IN (en) HIM (Christ) before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him in love. HE PREDESTINED US to adoption as sons THROUGH (dia) JESUS CHRIST to Himself …” If God’s elect can be “predestined … THROUGH (DIA-ON ACCOUNT OF) JESUS CHRIST,” then so could the entire creation be “predestined … THROUGH JESUS CHRIST.” But according to the King James version's (and many other's) mistranslation, it would have us believe that Jesus helped the Father god-person and the Holy Spirit god-person in creation. I mean that is just a pure criminal alteration.
  2. Searching about the Trinity, I found very good explanations like the "one BEING that has 3 PERSONS" or the analogy of the cube as in C. S. Lewis book. But, if a cube is made of 6 sqaures, it means that, if one square is missing, we can no longer call that figure a cube, and, the square that is missing in this cube is not a cube anymore, it is just a square. Does that mean that, without one of these persons, God is not complete? Do those 3 persons depend on each other to become God like the squares depend on each other to become a cube? Would we say that the trinity is like 1/3 of God? Like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1? I know it doesn't fit in the definition of the Christian God. But what would be the answer for it? How does the trinity works in this sense?
  3. ‘I and my Father are one.’ (John 10:30, KJV). ‘ego kai ho patar ev esmen: (John 10:30: The Nestles Greek text). ‘I ((Subject)) and ((conjunction)) my Father ((object)) are ((verb 1st-person-plural)) one ((adjective)).’ (John 10:30, KJV). Oneness Pentecostals (Apostolics), and I used to be one back in the 1980s, would need to explain the use of the verb ‘to be,’ which a first person plural at John 10:30; ‘I and my Father (we) are one.’ This verse does not record Jesus as saying; ‘I am the Father,’ for such a direct claim by Jesus to be God the Father, would have included the verb ‘to be’ in the first person singular: ‘I am.’ But Jesus at John 10:30 instead applies a plural verb to both the Father and also to the Son; ‘are’ as in ‘we are,’ which is the verb ‘to be,’ (esmen) a present tense, in first person plural. This is why he specifically claimed to be God’s Son, and not God the Father himself at John 10:36; ‘Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?’ Secondly, why is the Greek neuter word ‘hen’ for ‘one’ used at John 10:30 rather than the masculine Greek word for “one,” which is the Greek ‘heis?’ This masculine word is always used in the Greek, to describe God as ‘one’ in the strictly numeric sense, and so logically it would be the only word which Jesus could use to claim that he is himself really God the Father in an absolute and literal sense. So the neuter word ‘hen,’ just means to be ‘one in agreement’ or to be ‘one in unity’ with another person, it’s used that way at 1st Corinthians 3:8, where Paul planted and Apollos watered so that were one (hen), which doesn’t mean that Paul is claiming that he was Apollos! Paul is just saying that they worked together as a team, but not that they were both the same one person! As a former Oneness Pentecostal, allow me to warn people against this error, which is sweeping through and taking over nominally Trinitarian Pentecostal and Charismatic Churches around the world. I do have a video on my own YouTube channel of me explaining this verse, however, I do not know if I am permitted to post this here, possibly the admins could help me with the rules.