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Is there significance in Joseph being sold to relatives?


Isaiah 6:8

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Because it was the mentality of flesh (not spirit) that sent Jesus to the cross, and Joseph to a pit.

 

It's the consistent pattern through scripture, that our own reasoning which equates itself with the labor to be is what crucifies the truth, not only the literal son of God/Jesus but for each of us, who are the same as sons, and why Paul said to bring every thought (our own reasoning) into the obedience of Christ which starts out by picking up our cross, this was the lesson that Joseph learned and the lesson Jesus taught to an absolute.

 

The pattern of the two sons starts in Genesis, as an inheritance (which can be tied into the Abraham's exceeding and great reward as it can with John's Behold now are we the sons of God) that was divided in the sons of Adam (of which the heaven and earth, and the first heaven and earth and the new heaven and earth speak to in their perspective order), Ishmael is like a Cain, or an Esau just as Adam became the same picture of this as the first born through the same process of thought ... if that makes senses.

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Hey, x141, you got my username wrong. :P That's not my real name (it's just a phrase from my native language), so don't make a capital P to stand for a nonexistent middle initial. Dakilang P. Asa indeed. Yuck! :D

As someone has recently suggested, just call me Dak :thumbsup:

~

 

I was going to ask you about that.........   Mr. Great Hope...

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By the way I do understand the big picture and how many of the events in Joseph's life were foreshadows of Christ, and the work he did, as some of you have pointed out. However I am interested in this one point, why did the Bible mention that it was Ishmaelite / Mindianite Traders by name, not just that some random traders, coming by. It mentions there nationality, instead of just saying they were spice merchants. So I am more of the specific meaning to this, not the broad meaning of Joseph's life.

For this specific meaning that you want, I think you would need now real Bible scholars... :)

Seriously though, if you want to know exactly "why the Bible said it," then the person to ask is the writer himself -- God himself -- and not us. We can only give you our best interpretations of what has already been written... and not why those had been written in the first place.

Besides, your original question was about the probable significance of Joseph being sold to his relatives, and that implies an analysis of the big picture.

And so, yes, I still think that what I said -- that it was probably because God wanted to keep this matter within the family -- is a good reason why Joseph was sold to his relatives instead of other peoples.

~

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By the way I do understand the big picture and how many of the events in Joseph's life were foreshadows of Christ, and the work he did, as some of you have pointed out. However I am interested in this one point, why did the Bible mention that it was Ishmaelite / Mindianite Traders by name, not just that some random traders, coming by. It mentions there nationality, instead of just saying they were spice merchants. So I am more of the specific meaning to this, not the broad meaning of Joseph's life.

For this specific meaning that you want, I think you would need now real Bible scholars... :)

Seriously though, if you want to know exactly "why the Bible said it," then the person to ask is the writer himself -- God himself -- and not us. We can only give you our best interpretations of what has already been written... and not why those had been written in the first place.

Besides, your original question was about the probable significance of Joseph being sold to his relatives, and that implies an analysis of the big picture.

And so, yes, I still think that what I said -- that it was probably because God wanted to keep this matter within the family -- is a good reason why Joseph was sold to his relatives instead of other peoples.

~

 

 

It didn't stay that way long ...

 

Gen 39:1  And Joseph was brought down to Egypt; and Potiphar, an officer of Pharaoh, captain of the guard, an Egyptian, bought him of the hands of the Ishmeelites, which had brought him down thither. 
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Maybe God just wanted to make sure that he was safe on the trip to Egypt so he had family do it. 

 

Or maybe no one else was coming and/or going that way.

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Maybe God just wanted to make sure that he was safe on the trip to Egypt so he had family do it.

Or maybe no one else was coming and/or going that way.

Yes, you've summarized my points precisely. :)

~

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Besides, your original question was about the probable significance of Joseph being sold to his relatives, and that implies an analysis of the big picture.

And so, yes, I still think that what I said -- that it was probably because God wanted to keep this matter within the family -- is a good reason why Joseph was sold to his relatives instead of other peoples.

~

It didn't stay that way long ...

Gen 39:1 And Joseph was brought down to Egypt; and Potiphar, an officer of Pharaoh, captain of the guard, an Egyptian, bought him of the hands of the Ishmeelites, which had brought him down thither.

Yes, but the deed was done. Joseph was already in Egypt. :)

~

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interesting thoughts all, I think I shall dig deeper, it may mean nothing but I think it's rare for the Bible to put in details without meaning. 

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I had just started a thread speaking about how Josephs life is a perfect parallel of Jesus.

 

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