Guest shiloh357 Posted June 7, 2014 Share Posted June 7, 2014 Just in disagreement with protestant interpretation The Bible is the Word of God. We believe that the 66 books of the Canon, from Genesis to revelation are the exhaustive , inerrant and inspired word of God. http://www.worthynetwork.com/statement-of-faith I believe the Bible is words from God, inspired and has 72 books So what is the difference between saying the Bible is the words of God and saying that the Bible is the Word of God? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whitetiger Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Members Followers: 2 Topic Count: 1 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 67 Content Per Day: 0.02 Reputation: 16 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/05/2014 Status: Offline Birthday: 07/27/1971 Share Posted June 7, 2014 Because there is only one Word of God which is His Son Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
firestormx Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 6 Topic Count: 62 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,113 Content Per Day: 0.26 Reputation: 442 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/06/2012 Status: Offline Birthday: 10/17/1975 Share Posted June 7, 2014 Just a thought as I read through this thread. Is it possible that the different meanings of a logos word and a rhema word have anything to do with the confusion over both Jesus and the bible being the word of God? I mean clearly Jesus is referred to as the word of God, but so is the bible. Is the bible apart of the trinity? Is Christ no more than the content of the pages of the bible. Clearly there is confusion over the bible being the inspired, God-breathed word of God, and Jesus Christ being the word of God. Maybe if someone with a better understand of the proper grammar could explain in greater detail How both are the word of God but different., How both are the word of God but only Jesus is apart of the trinity? Just my 2 cents, take it for whatever it is worth. God Bless you all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest shiloh357 Posted June 7, 2014 Share Posted June 7, 2014 Because there is only one Word of God which is His Son What about all the passages of Scripture I presented where the Scripture calls itself the Word of God? Why does Paul call the Gospel the Word of God? You simply ignore those? Cut those out of your Bible? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest shiloh357 Posted June 7, 2014 Share Posted June 7, 2014 Just a thought as I read through this thread. Is it possible that the different meanings of a logos word and a rhema word have anything to do with the confusion over both Jesus and the bible being the word of God? I mean clearly Jesus is referred to as the word of God, but so is the bible. Is the bible apart of the trinity? Is Christ no more than the content of the pages of the bible. Clearly there is confusion over the bible being the inspired, God-breathed word of God, and Jesus Christ being the word of God. Maybe if someone with a better understand of the proper grammar could explain in greater detail How both are the word of God but different., How both are the word of God but only Jesus is apart of the trinity? Just my 2 cents, take it for whatever it is worth. God Bless you all. It's really simple. Jesus is the Word of God in the sense that Jesus is the living personification of the Law and the Prophets. The Bible is the written Word, God personal self-disclosure or revelation of Himself to the world. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
firestormx Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 6 Topic Count: 62 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,113 Content Per Day: 0.26 Reputation: 442 Days Won: 3 Joined: 06/06/2012 Status: Offline Birthday: 10/17/1975 Share Posted June 7, 2014 It's really simple. Jesus is the Word of God in the sense that Jesus is the living personification of the Law and the Prophets. The Bible is the written Word, God personal self-disclosure or revelation of Himself to the world. That is a good simple answer, thanks. Sometimes I stumble over myself trying to find the right words. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sevenseas Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 30 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,373 Content Per Day: 0.76 Reputation: 683 Days Won: 22 Joined: 02/28/2012 Status: Offline Share Posted June 7, 2014 We will have to agree to disagree That's not just a disagreement. That, is just wrong. The Bible is the word of God. Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet’s own interpretation of things. 21For prophecy never had its origin in the human will, but prophets, though human, spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit. I Peter 1:20-21 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, II Timothy 3:16 “If anyone hears my words but does not keep them, I do not judge that person. For I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. 48There is a judge for the one who rejects me and does not accept my words; the very words I have spoken will condemn them at the last day. 49For I did not speak on my own, but the Father who sent me commanded me to say all that I have spoken. 50I know that his command leads to eternal life. So whatever I say is just what the Father has told me to say.” John 12: 47-50 Jesus Himself stated that the words he spoke were ALL from God. It seems to me, that someone might be actually questionning the doctrine of the trinity if they believe that Jesus words pre-empted the Bible, which itself clearly states was given by God, is from God and inspired by God and reveals the will of God, salvation and anything and everything else including God sending His only Son, Jesus. Sorry, no. Christ is the Word of God not the bible. In the beginning the Word already existed; the Word was with God, and the Word was God. From the very beginning the Word was with God. John 1:1-2 Actually, that is saying that the Word was God. I'm well aware of that verse but it does not say what you are trying to make it say. I believe also that John is speaking of Jesus but this verse supports the doctrine of the Trinity and does not cancel out all other scripture that supports evidence for the Bible being the word of God. You cannot simply ignore all scripture that has been evidenced in reply to your particular belief because it is contrary to what you believe. Now that I know you are Catholic, I understand why you are believing as you do. Having exchanged with Catholics on other forums I have decided that the barrage of non-Biblical support viewed as evidence to support such claims as the one you are making, may very well hold more sway than the actual Bible itself. I do not believe that system has a good foundation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sevenseas Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 30 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,373 Content Per Day: 0.76 Reputation: 683 Days Won: 22 Joined: 02/28/2012 Status: Offline Share Posted June 7, 2014 I hold to the 66 books of the canon being the Word of God, but I do have a question. Why do you Whitetiger believe there are 72 inspired books? If you are speaking of the Apocrypha, there were 14 books in the original Apocrypha. Why do you only consider 6 of them scripture? Why not 80? I am also wondering what you mean by the Bible being "words from God?" Do you believe every jot and tittle are "words from God," or do you only believe part of the Bible is actual "words from God?" Do you believe the Bible is inerrant? He is holding the Catholic position. However, this particular opinion he expresses is not one I have heard before. There are sects within the Catholic church as you prob know, so who knows exactly what he refers to unless he enlightens us. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sevenseas Posted June 7, 2014 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 30 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,373 Content Per Day: 0.76 Reputation: 683 Days Won: 22 Joined: 02/28/2012 Status: Offline Share Posted June 7, 2014 Why does John call Jesus the Word of God? and should we build an entire doctrine around one verse? The answer to this question is found by first understanding the reason why John wrote his gospel. We find his purpose clearly stated inJohn 20:30-31. “Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” Once we understand that John’s purpose was to introduce the readers of his gospel to Jesus Christ, establishing Who Jesus is (God in the flesh) and what He did, all with the sole aim of leading them to embrace the saving work of Christ in faith, we will be better able to understand why John introduces Jesus as “The Word” inJohn 1:1.By starting out his gospel stating, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God,” John is introducing Jesus with a word or a term that both his Jewish and Gentile readers would have been familiar with. The Greek word translated “Word” in this passage is Logos, and it was common in both Greek philosophy and Jewish thought of that day. For example, in the Old Testament the “word” of God is often personified as an instrument for the execution of God’s will (Psalm 33:6;107:20;119:89;147:15-18). So, for his Jewish readers, by introducing Jesus as the “Word,” John is in a sense pointing them back to the Old Testament where the Logos or “Word” of God is associated with the personification of God’s revelation. And in Greek philosophy, the term Logos was used to describe the intermediate agency by which God created material things and communicated with them. In the Greek worldview, the Logos was thought of as a bridge between the transcendent God and the material universe. Therefore, for his Greek readers the use of the term Logos would have likely brought forth the idea of a mediating principle between God and the world. If the Bible contains the word of God but is not the word of God, then we must ask which parts of the Bible are the Word of God and which are not? The problem in answering this question is that the one who seeks to do so inadvertently places himself as the judge of what is and what is not inspired and without error. But by what standard would such a person make such judgment?Read more:http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Word-God.html#ixzz33xbiGXCC You cannot ignore contextual support and the audience and writer of the day. To do so, results in errant doctrine, heresy and problems with the entire Bible If saying the Bible is the word of God is true, then nothing changes anyway. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whitetiger Posted June 8, 2014 Group: Members Followers: 2 Topic Count: 1 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 67 Content Per Day: 0.02 Reputation: 16 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/05/2014 Status: Offline Birthday: 07/27/1971 Share Posted June 8, 2014 I hold to the 66 books of the canon being the Word of God, but I do have a question. Why do you Whitetiger believe there are 72 inspired books? If you are speaking of the Apocrypha, there were 14 books in the original Apocrypha. Why do you only consider 6 of them scripture? Why not 80? Because that is what the Church determined in th 300's through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. I am also wondering what you mean by the Bible being "words from God?" Do you believe every jot and tittle are "words from God," or do you only believe part of the Bible is actual "words from God?" Do you believe the Bible is inerrant? Just that, the Scriptures are words from God and the Word of God in Christ. See here http://www.orthodoxanswers.org/answer/581/ and here http://orthodoxcanada.org/qa_archives/question7.html for my view of Bibical inerrancy Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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