James 2 - What did James Mean?

[bcbsr]

Martin Luther made the keen observation that when reading what James ACTUALLY wrote, it was clear that he didn't agree with Paul concerning the requirements for salvation. Therefore Martin Luther writes, "I do not regard it as the writing of an apostle, and my reasons follow. In the first place it is flatly against St. Paul and all the rest of Scripture in ascribing justification to works 2:24). It says that Abraham was justified by his works when he offered his son Isaac (2:20); Though in Romans 4:22-22 St. Paul teaches to the contrary that Abraham was justified apart from works, by his faith alone, before he had offered his son, and proves it by Moses in Genesis 15:6. Although it would be possible to "save" the epistle by a gloss giving a correct explanation of justification here ascribed to works, it is impossible to deny that it does refer to Moses' words in Genesis 15 (which speaks not of Abraham's works but of his faith, just as Paul makes plain in Romans 4) to Abraham's works. This fault proves that this epistle is not the work of any apostle."

The "gloss" readings he's referring to are those found typically today among indoctrinated Christians desperate to grasp at any straw of an interpretation which resolves the contradiction between Paul and James. Whereas the contradiction is real and the view of James, who is not an apostle, should be discarded in favor of Paul who is an apostle. There's no valid reason why the letters of James and his brother Jude should be reckon scripture.

One such gloss is the idea that James 2:24 "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only." should read "By works you see that a man is justified rather then solely by faith." The idea is to make works the means of seeing rather than the means of justifying. It's like taking Acts 8:23 which says, "For I see that you are poisoned by bitterness and bound by iniquity" in which Peter is criticizing Simon Magnus, and rewriting it as, "For by bitterness and by iniquity I see that you are poisoned", as if Peter was the one full of bitterness and iniquity!

To disprove the validity of such an amusing translation one needs only read the verse that follows James 2:24 which says, "Likewise, was not Rahab the harlot also justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?" How would one have to rewrite this verse to be consistent with the gloss given of verse 24? One would want to fabricate the following, "Likewise, by works don't you see that Rahab the harlot was justified?" Here the word "see" which is not even in the verse is inserted, the words jumbled. "was not" becomes "don't you see that".

And you'd have to play the same game with verse 21, "Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?" Wave a magic wand and turn that into, "By works don't you see that Abraham our faith was justified ..."

Very few Christian seem interested in reading out of James what James actually meant based upon what he ACTUALLY said. The vast majority seem only interested in reading into James things that he didn't say, their goal being to explain away the contradiction between James and Paul. They start with the wrong premise, assume that James' letter is the Word of God, and so the disagree with James is to disagree with God. It's an assumption that not all of us hold.

 
But if someone would like to defend their gloss reading of James, please do so.

[Guest shiloh357]

There is no contradiction between James and Paul, at all.    Paul when referring to justification in say, Rom. 3:28, is referring to our justification by faith before God.   We are not justified/saved by works, but by faith. 

 

James, on the other hand is not speaking on how we are justified before God.   James is talking about our profession of faith in James chapter 2.   James is talking about the justification or affirmation of our professed faith.   "show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by my works.   James is drawing the connection between what say and what we do.  Abraham was justified by works.  But that is not justification before God.  James is saying that we can know the authenticity of Abraham's faith because of his works.   Same goes for Rahab.   The point that James is making is that our claim to have faith in God is only justified when it is accompanied by corresponding works.

 

James is a very practical book and is more concerned with practical Christian living.  It is not concerned so much with how we are saved (as is the case with Romans), but rather it is concerned with how we live out our faith in the context of community.

 

Martin Luther was wrong.

[Ezra]

The Bible cannot, and does not contradict itself.  If Paul -- by Divine inspiration -- has written extensively about faith being the basis of justification, then we must find a way to reconcile what James is teaching with what Paul has clearly laid out.

 

There is no need to gloss any Scripture. The key to understand why James says what he says is in Jas 2:14:What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?

 

James is simply stressing the fact that genuine saving faith must produce good works.  If there are no good works, that faith was not genuine, therefore that "salvation" was not genuine.  This corresponds to Eph 2:8-10:  For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.  For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

 

Please take note of firstly "not of works" and secondly "unto good works".  That resolves the apparent conflict between Paul and James.

 

[gdemoss]

Shiloh nailed it. There is no contradiction. True faith is displayed in works that follow after.

[By Faith]

There is no contradiction between James and Paul, at all.    Paul when referring to justification in say, Rom. 3:28, is referring to our justification by faith before God.   We are not justified/saved by works, but by faith. 

 

James, on the other hand is not speaking on how we are justified before God.   James is talking about our profession of faith in James chapter 2.   James is talking about the justification or affirmation of our professed faith.   "show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by my works.   James is drawing the connection between what say and what we do.  Abraham was justified by works.  But that is not justification before God.  James is saying that we can know the authenticity of Abraham's faith because of his works.   Same goes for Rahab.   The point that James is making is that our claim to have faith in God is only justified when it is accompanied by corresponding works.

 

James is a very practical book and is more concerned with practical Christian living.  It is not concerned so much with how we are saved (as is the case with Romans), but rather it is concerned with how we live out our faith in the context of community.

 

Martin Luther was wrong.

 

Martin Luther was wrong. 

 

We are also justified by works. You almost understand what James is saying. Works is a justification before God.

 

Jas 2:21  Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?

 

If Abraham was Justified by Works, then who justified him? Abraham did not justify himself. Abraham's own works would have been as rags. 

 

James is also not talking about just faith to be born again, Jesus is talking about how faith works, including being born again.

 

here is a clue.

 

Rom_16:26  But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: 

 

 

Switch the Word works, with Action. Then Look at all the examples of healing and God doing miracles. Also look at what Action that would be. 

 

Blessings.

[Guest shiloh357]

No, by Faith...  

 

We are not justified (placed in right standing with God)  by works, at all.   God justifies us (makes us righteous) by faith alone, in Christ alone.  Rom. 3:20, 28;  says that we are justified by faith apart from works.  It is an explicit, unmistakable statement by Paul.

 

James is not talking about our justification before God.   He is not talking about an act of God.   James is using "justification" in the sense of affirmation/confirmation.  James' point is that Abraham and Rahab had faith that was affirmed/confirmed by their works.   In other words our works justify us before men in the sense that our profession of faith is shown to be genuine, it is affirmed by corresponding action.

[Bible2]

bcbsr said in post 1:

 

Martin Luther made the keen observation that when reading what James ACTUALLY wrote, it was clear that he didn't agree with Paul concerning the requirements for salvation.

 

Actually, there is no disagreement (see the other James thread in this subforum), and we must not let Luther determine the canon of scripture. For just as he mistakenly rejected the epistle of James as "an epistle of straw", so he mistakenly rejected the book of Revelation as being a book in which "Christ is neither taught nor known", when in fact the entire book of Revelation is from Christ to the church (Revelation 1:1, Revelation 22:16). And Christ is taught and known throughout the book.

 

For Revelation 1 is about Christ's appearance and speaking to John the apostle while John was on Patmos. And Revelation chapters 2-3 are letters which Christ spoke directly to 7 churches. And Revelation 5 is about Christ as the Lamb (cf. John 1:36, Acts 8:32; 1 Peter 1:19), now in heaven. And Revelation 6 is about how Christ will unseal the 7 seals of the tribulation. And Revelation 7:9-17 is about Christ comforting the souls of dead believers in heaven. And Revelation 11:8 refers to Christ as our Lord. And Revelation 11:15 refers to Christ, in our future, taking legal possession of all the kingdoms of the world away from the Antichrist. And Revelation 12:10 mentions the power of Christ. And Revelation 12:11 refers to martyrs overcoming Satan by the blood of Christ. And Revelation 12:17 refers to Christians having the testimony of Christ (Revelation 12:17). And Revelation 13:8 mentions Christ. And Revelation 14:1 refers to Christ standing on the heavenly Mount Zion (cf. Hebrews 12:22). And Revelation 14:4 refers to how the 144,000 will be Christ's followers (Revelation 14:4).

 

And Revelation 14:10 refers to those in hell being tormented in the presence of Christ. And Revelation 14:12-13 refers to Christians keeping the faith of Christ even to martyrdom. And Revelation 14:14-16 refers to Christ reaping their souls into heaven after their death. And Revelation 15:3 refers to the song of Christ. And Revelation 16:15 quotes something Christ says. And Revelation 17:6 refers to those martyred for Christ. And Revelation 17:14 refers to Christ's future victory over the powers of the unsaved world, as Lord of lords and King of kings. And Revelation 19:7 refers to Christ's future marriage to the church. And Revelation 19:9 refers to the marriage supper of Christ. And Revelation 19:10 refers to those who have the testimony of Christ, and says the testimony of Christ is the spirit of prophecy. And Revelation 19:11-21 describes Christ's 2nd coming. And Revelation 20:4-6 refers to Christ's future, millennial reign on the earth with the physically resurrected church. And Revelation 20:11-15 refers to when Christ will resurrect and judge (cf. John 5:22,28,29) all unsaved people of all times. And Revelation 21:9 refers to how New Jerusalem pictures Christ's bride, the church. And Revelation 21:14 mentions Christ's apostles.

 

And Revelation 21:22 refers to Christ himself and God the Father as the temple of New Jerusalem. And Revelation 21:23 refers to Christ being the light of New Jerusalem. And Revelation 21:27 refers to Christ's book of life. And Revelation 22:1,3 refers to the throne of Christ and God the Father. And Revelation 22:3 refers to the servants of Christ and God the Father. And Revelation 22:7,12,13,16,20a quotes Christ. And Revelation 22:17,20b refers to the church calling for Christ's (still unfulfilled) 2nd coming. And Revelation 22:21 closes the book with "The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen", just as the book had opened with "The Revelation of Jesus Christ" (Revelation 1:1).

 

So it doesn't seem possible that anyone could say Christ is neither taught nor known in the book of Revelation.

[gdemoss]

Peter spoke about twisting the scriptures unto ones own destruction. Some things are hard to be understood. Paul spoke of men who had greatly resisted their words. The debate doesn't end until God calls in the cards.

[Ezra]

We can sum this up by saying that in the eyes of God we are justified by faith, while in the eyes of men we are justified by works.  "By their fruits ye shall know them".  That is all that James is teaching.

[sermonindex]

If our faith is not working and active, ie fruit in our lives then we can have "faith alone" but will not inherit the kingdom of God.