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The Battle of Gog and Magog


Ezra

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Ezra : Your correct that it's after the 1000 year but its a new planet earth for this earth will be split into three parts and at least one part becomes a moon for the New Earth. Satan"s army will invade this earth and take over as Isaiah 33 say's. This reason because of the iniquity of Christian's on earth. Yea and Satan will return to his planet, this is because God will hit his planet with a few rocks. He will not have his back up army.

23 Thy tacklings are loosed; they could not well strengthen their mast, they could not spread the sail: then is the prey of a great spoil divided; the lame take the prey.

This is why Christ has said go captive if you go.

It is a hands down win on this earth for Satan but will need to return back because no reinforcement's.

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11 hours ago, OakWood said:

The Battle of Armageddon is NOT the Ezekiel 38-39 war, nor is it the Gog, Magog war of the book of Revelation. They are three distinct battles.

1/ Ezekiel 38-39: An attempt to attack and plunder Israel which fails due to God's intervention.

2/ Armageddon: A battle between good and evil at the close of the Tribulation.

3/ Revelation Gog, Magog: Final battle at the end of the Millennium.

 

I likewise only see three specific times of war in the end times.

  1. The second seal, which I still see as future.
  2. The battle of Armageddon
  3. The post-millennial war

As far as who represents Gog, how far north is north, and which war is which, etc. . . . . I'll just wait and see.

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scratched, because unable to format correctly

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Quote

The KJV is not a perfect translation by any means. Those translators (as all translators) had their own biases, both doctrinal and eschatological. Regarding the word in question, here is what two different lexicons say:

Thats interesting William

What biases did they have?

I'm trying to picture it, seeing the world had not yet had access to the Word of God, and there were not 400 Christian denominations around in those days.

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How many 'biases' were there before there were any denominations ? i.e. Yahshua's declarations bout the scribes and pharisees// scholars of Scripture//.  ((and lawyers/ teachers/ rich/  educated ones))

8 minutes ago, Sister said:

Thats interesting William

What biases did they have?

I'm trying to picture it, seeing the world had not yet had access to the Word of God, and there were not 400 Christian denominations around in those days.

 

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Hi Jeff

The biases we have today are within the Christian land.  It's the Christian theologians who keep bringing out new bible translations.

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54 minutes ago, Sister said:

Hi Jeff

The biases we have today are within the Christian land.  It's the Christian theologians who keep bringing out new bible translations.

Yes, and look what that leads to.

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20 minutes ago, OakWood said:

Yes, and look what that leads to.

Yes, a newcomer on here was or is a witch I'm not sure, wants to check out God's Word.  He is overwhelmed by all the bible versions and doesn't know which one to chose. He was "confused". 

We should be able to pick up God's Word and go directly to see what he says, but no, confusion at the front door before we even enter.  Who did that?

 

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15 hours ago, Sister said:

Thats interesting William

What biases did they have?

I'm trying to picture it, seeing the world had not yet had access to the Word of God, and there were not 400 Christian denominations around in those days.

The KJV dates from 1611. But Bible translations into the vernacular languages (other than Latin and Greek) had already been made in Europe for more than two centuries. The Reformation, with the various denominational churches that formed out of it, was already a century old.

From wikipedia:

"The King James Version (KJV), also known as the Authorized Version (AV) or King James Bible (KJB), is an English translation of the Christian Bible for the Church of England that began in 1604 and was completed in 1611.

"First printed by the King's Printer Robert Barker, this was the third translation into English to be approved by the English Church authorities. The first was the Great Bible commissioned in the reign of King Henry VIII (1535), and the second was the Bishops' Bible of 1568. In January 1604, James I convened the Hampton Court Conference where a new English version was conceived in response to the perceived problems of the earlier translations as detected by the Puritans, a faction within the Church of England. ...

"James gave the translators instructions intended to guarantee that the new version would conform to the ecclesiology and reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and its belief in an ordained clergy. The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England."   https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/King_James_Version

Perhaps the most obvious evidence of ecclesiastical bias was the KJV's translation of the Greek word pascha as "Easter." The word indisputably means Passover. Easter was not a religious holiday for either Mosaic nor Christian Jews in 41 AD, when the event took place.

Acts 2:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter [pascha/Passover] to bring him forth to the people.

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1 hour ago, WilliamL said:

The KJV dates from 1611. But Bible translations into the vernacular languages (other than Latin and Greek) had already been made in Europe for more than two centuries. The Reformation, with the various denominational churches that formed out of it, was already a century old.

From wikipedia:

"The King James Version (KJV), also known as the Authorized Version (AV) or King James Bible (KJB), is an English translation of the Christian Bible for the Church of England that began in 1604 and was completed in 1611.

"First printed by the King's Printer Robert Barker, this was the third translation into English to be approved by the English Church authorities. The first was the Great Bible commissioned in the reign of King Henry VIII (1535), and the second was the Bishops' Bible of 1568. In January 1604, James I convened the Hampton Court Conference where a new English version was conceived in response to the perceived problems of the earlier translations as detected by the Puritans, a faction within the Church of England. ...

"James gave the translators instructions intended to guarantee that the new version would conform to the ecclesiology and reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and its belief in an ordained clergy. The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England."   https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/King_James_Version

Perhaps the most obvious evidence of ecclesiastical bias was the KJV's translation of the Greek word pascha as "Easter." The word indisputably means Passover. Easter was not a religious holiday for either Mosaic nor Christian Jews in 41 AD, when the event took place.

Acts 2:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter [pascha/Passover] to bring him forth to the people.

William

I appreciate that information, and we can go on an on about all the history, but there has to be one version unchanged, which means God's Word is still preserved today for "all generations" as promised by him.

 

Psalms 12:6   The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.

Psalms 119:140   Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it.

 

And that means his Word in the Old and New Testament is not just available to the last generation of gentiles before Christ returns, but to many other generations before them, because we were warned that wolves would come in especially during the last days trample on the truth, and what better place to start than through God’s own Word already established, which is accurate 100% and protected by God himself so that we can trust absolutely everything he has given us to be in unity with the spirit of truth. 

The only way to find out is to stumble across contradictions, and I don’t mean by comparing the Hebrew or Greek to the English, but the actual doctrine being relayed, by the wordings in the scriptures.  There will be tell-tale signs, and the spirit of truth will reveal, but only for those who have a sharp eye and deep love for the truth.

 

Psalms 106:12   Then believed they his words; they sang his praise.

Psalms 119:162   I rejoice at thy word, as one that findeth great spoil.

 

That means there should be no doubt whatsoever in a single translated word, for then the whole book cannot be trusted.

 

 Psalms 119:49   ZAIN. Remember the word unto thy servant, upon which thou hast caused me to hope.

 

I believe "Easter" is the correct word translated, because if we know history, this celebration practiced by the Romans then, was passed down from other civilizations and involved worship of the Goddess "Dianna" the pagan Queen of heaven who goes by many different names according to culture, tracing it's roots right back to Ninevah or even Babel.  So it's not a mistake, but a revealing.

 

 

Psalms 106:24   Yea, they despised the pleasant land, they believed not his word:

Psalms 119:42   So shall I have wherewith to answer him that reproacheth me: for I trust in thy word.

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