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God's Future Plan for Israel


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I didn't say that the 10 tribes came from Judah.   I said they came from Jacob.   They are the same DNA as the tribe of Judah and they are one nation with Judah and Benjamin.     The notion that they are Gentiles is a "Gentile" theory not supported in the Bible.

I know this may be outside your limited and feeble skill set, but perhaps you might try actually try reading what I said and respond to that. 

I said that the company of nations is comprised of those who have trusted in Jesus.  That's the answer. This is the third and last time I am answering that question.   You may not like that answer, but that is the answer. 

So who is Israel,and how can you join something back together that was'nt together?

At one time the whole house was together while this was so,who were the gentile tribes within the 12?

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I didn't say that the 10 tribes came from Judah.   I said they came from Jacob.   They are the same DNA as the tribe of Judah and they are one nation with Judah and Benjamin.     The notion that they are Gentiles is a "Gentile" theory not supported in the Bible.

I know this may be outside your limited and feeble skill set, but perhaps you might try actually try reading what I said and respond to that. 

I said that the company of nations is comprised of those who have trusted in Jesus.  That's the answer. This is the third and last time I am answering that question.   You may not like that answer, but that is the answer. 

So who is Israel,and how can you join something back together that was'nt together?

At one time the whole house was together while this was so,who were the gentile tribes within the 12?

Who is Israel?   Israel is the twelve tribes descended from Jacob.  There are no Gentile tribes.   Ezekiel 37 speaks to the reunification of 12 tribes.   They are all one  people, one nation and none of them are Gentiles.   To claim that the 10 tribes were Gentiles makes no sense and is not supported by Scripture.   The Bible makes a clear distinction between the 12 tribes and the Gentile nations.   And it makes a clear distinction between the Church and Israel.  They are radically separate.

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I didn't say that the 10 tribes came from Judah.   I said they came from Jacob.   They are the same DNA as the tribe of Judah and they are one nation with Judah and Benjamin.     The notion that they are Gentiles is a "Gentile" theory not supported in the Bible.

I know this may be outside your limited and feeble skill set, but perhaps you might try actually try reading what I said and respond to that.

I said that the company of nations is comprised of those who have trusted in Jesus.  That's the answer. This is the third and last time I am answering that question.   You may not like that answer, but that is the answer.

So who is Israel,and how can you join something back together that was'nt together?

At one time the whole house was together while this was so,who were the gentile tribes within the 12?

Who is Israel?   Israel is the twelve tribes descended from Jacob.  There are no Gentile tribes.   Ezekiel 37 speaks to the reunification of 12 tribes.   They are all one  people, one nation and none of them are Gentiles.   To claim that the 10 tribes were Gentiles makes no sense and is not supported by Scripture.   The Bible makes a clear distinction between the 12 tribes and the Gentile nations.   And it makes a clear distinction between the Church and Israel.  They are radically separate.

Would be wise of you to do a study on the word gentile....Also are you saying that all 12 tribes are Jew's?

As for the Church,they have always been Israel,would love to see the distinction between the two in scripture,thx...

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The word Gentile as Used in Scripture

A Study into the Meaning of the Word Gentile as Used in Scripture

A few years ago this writer was in the home of a friend, and as I looked over her books I saw that she had one of these large dictionaries that are usually found only in public libraries. I said to her, "May I use your dictionary?" I knew that she had always been interested in the correct use of words, so I thought that this would be a good way to start a conversation regarding our identity with Israel. I turned the pages to find the word "gentile". Immediately the lady asked, "What is the word you are looking for?" I replied, "I am looking up the word 'gentile.'" Then she wanted to know what the dictionary had to say. I gave it to help her understand that if the dictionary was correct she couldn't possibly be a gentile, which she had always claimed to be. Then I read her this definition. "A gentile is a pagan or a heathen or some one who is not a Yahudi or a Christian." "Now," I said, "since you are a Christian you cannot possibly be a gentile". She was rather startled at what I told her. Then I went into the meaning of the same words as used in the Bible, and you may be assured that before I was through she had many of her long-established ideas upset.

A great deal of confusion and misunderstanding has been caused by the use of the word "gentile" in the English translation of the Bible. Let us take up a brief study of it. It should always be remembered that foreign languages often lose the strength of their meaning through translation. Then it should also be remembered that some words have many meanings.

Take the word man as an illustration. Generically speaking it means mankind generally, both men and women. But if it is used in the same sentence with the word woman, it means the male of the species. If it is used in the same sentence with the word boy it means the mature of the species. Thus the word man has three meanings, the meaning of the word being determined by its use in the context.

Now the word gentile is a translation of the Hebrew word goi (singular) and goyim (plural) and the Greek word ethnos (singular) and ethne (plural). Using the word gentile to translate these words is often misleading because it is a misapplication of the Hebrew and Greek words as used in the Bible. The modern use of the word has come to mean non-Yahudi or non-Israel, but that meaning cannot be maintained in the face of the evidence I will present in this study.

The Hebrew word goi is a collective noun meaning nation or sometimes a collective body of people. But it has been translated into English may different ways. The word occurs 557 times in the Old Testament. The Authorized Version of the Bible translates it gentile 30 times; heathen 142 times; nation 373 times; people 11 times; another once. But the American Standard Version cuts the occurrence of gentile from 30 to 9 times, and then shows in the footnotes of 5 of those 9 times that the word nations should have been used.

Of course the word nation is not always an exact equivalent term because there is too much of the political significance attached to it. But it is much better than the word gentile and some of our best translators prefer the word nations. This is also shown by the way the Revised Version eliminates the word gentiles.

The same thing is true of the Greek word ethnos. It occurs 164 times in the New Testament. In the Authorized Version it is translated gentiles 93 times; heathen 5 times; nation or nations 64 times; and people twice. In the American Standard Revised Version it is gentiles 96 times in the text and 7 times in the footnotes, making 103 occurrences altogether. But in the footnotes it is corrected 15 times to read nations, making the final count 88. So not only the Hebrew word goi but also the Greek word ethnos has been translated to read nations more than any other word.

Though the word gentiles and the word heathen are used many times in the Bible, we must face the facts that there are no Hebrew or Greek words that would demand this translation.

If the reader will consult a good dictionary, you will find that the word gentile is derived from the Latin word gentilis and properly understood means non-something. As used by a Yahudi or an Israelite it would mean non-Yahudim or non-Israelite. But they are not the only people who have a right to use the word.

For instance, suppose a Buddhist priest spoke Latin and he wanted to refer to the nations that were not Buddhist, he could call them gentilis. In Hebrew and Greek, there is not an exact equivalent to the Latin word gentilis or the English word gentile, nevertheless, if this same priest spoke Hebrew and Greek along with his Latin and wanted to refer to the nations that were not Buddhist, he would call them goyim if speaking Hebrew and ethne if speaking Greek and each time he would naturally include the Yahudim and Israelite people. Likewise a Moslem priest could use the three languages and refer to the Yahudim and Israelites as gentilis, goyim and ethne.

One important thing to always keep in mind is that goi and ethnos are collective nouns and cannot properly be translated to mean an individual person. They always refer to a group. There is no such thing as A GENTILE; it is always plural. Gentiles in its plural sense may at times be used to translate goi and ethnos but its use gives an added thought not intended in the original word which cannot in every case be justified.

Another important word found in the Hebrew text, which needs only passing notice is the Hebrew word "am" and is found many times in the Old Testament text. It is translated nation 17 times. It is usually translated people, for it occurs that way 1,835 times in our English text. Occasionally it is qualified by the phrase "every people", but when it is rendered "the people" it usually means Israel. But this is not the word that has been the source of misunderstanding. Translations of the Hebrew word goi and the Greek word ethnos have caused the trouble.

The Hebrew word goi and the Greek word ethnos in their singular and plural forms are used three ways in the Bible:

1.In referring to the Israelite and Yahudim people, let us note the verses which follow below found in the Old Testament and New Testament which refer either to Israel or the Yahudi as a nation and use the Hebrew word goi and the Greek word ethnos. To demonstrate the absurdity of always translating the word goi or ethnos as gentile we suggest that you read the following verses substituting the word gentile or heathen, for nation or nations:

Gen. 12:2-"I will make of thee a great nation."
Gen. 17:4,5-"A father of many nations have I made thee."
Gen. 20:4-"Lord, wilt thou slay a righteous nation?" (heathen).
Gen. 25:23-"Two nations are in thy womb." (Try the word heathen or gentile in that verse).
Gen. 35:11-"A nation and a company of nations"
Gen. 48:19-"Thy seed shall become a multitude of nations."
Isa. 1:4-"Ah sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity."
Isa. 10:6-"Send him against an hypocritical nation."
Jer. 31:36-"Shall cease from being a nation before me."
Luke 7:5-"He loveth our nation and hath built us a synagogue."
John 11:48-"The Romans will come and take our place and nation."
John 11:50-"That one man should die for the people and that the whole nation perish not."
Acts 24:2-"Worthy deeds are done unto this nation by the providence."
Acts 24:17-"I came to bring alm to my nation."

From the foregoing verses and many others that could be given, it can easily be seen that the Hebrew word goi and the Greek word ethnos do not always refer to non-Israel people.

2.Now let us read a few verses where the same words are used and, as can be seen, refer very definitely to non-Israel people.

Gen. 14:9-"With Chedorlaomer the king of Elam, and with the Tidal king of nations."
Gen. 21:13-"And also the son of the bond woman will I make a nation."
Gen. 21:18-"For I will make of him a great nation."
Ex. 9:24-"There was none like it in all the land of Egypt since it became a nation."
Ex. 34:24-"For I will cast out the nations before thee."
Isa. 37:12-"Have the gods of the nations delivered them which my fathers have destroyed?"
Matt. 10:5-"Go not in the way of the gentiles."
Matt. 24:7-"For nation shall rise against nation."
Luke 21:24-
"They shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations."
Acts 7:7-"And the nation to whom they shall be in bondage will I judge, said God."
Acts 8:9-"But there was a certain man called Simon which before time in the same city used sorcery, and bewitched all the people of Samaria."
Acts 10:45-"Because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gifts of the Holy Ghost."

In the above verses three words have been used to translate the same Greek word ethnos, and they are nations, gentiles, and people.

3.Now we come to the third way in which the words have been used, and that is to describe all the nations, which of course, always includes Israel and non-Israel nations.

Gen.22: 18-"And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed."
Gen. 25:23-"Two nations are in thy womb."
I Chron. 16:23,24-"Declare his glory among the heathen....his marvelous works among the nations."
Psa. 9:19,20-"Let the heathen be judged in thy sight. Put them in fear, oh Lord: that the nations may know themselves to be but men."

Note the last two verses have used the two words heathen and nations to translate the same word in one passage.

Matt. 24:9,14-".....and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake." "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached for a witness to all nations."
Matt. 28:19-"Go ye therefore and teach all nations."
Acts 10:35-"But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him."

Attention should also be called to another Greek word erroneously translated gentiles. The word is Hellen and means Greeks or speaking people. It is used 27 times in the New Testament. In 20 places it is properly translated Greeks, but in 7 other places in the Authorized Version it is erroneously translated gentiles. This has been corrected in the Revised Version and nearly all-subsequent translations. For example, the Authorized Version translates John 7:35 to read: "Will he go unto the dispersed among the Greek and teach the Greek?" Take as another example I Corinthians 10:32, "Give none offense, neither to the Yahudim, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God". Now the writer has read several articles by well-known Bible teachers who reject the Israel identity of the Anglo-Saxon people because they say that this verse gives the only classes that God now recognizes. In other words they claim on the authority of this verse that the human race is divided into Yahudim, Gentiles and the Church of God.

That is a good example of how anything can be proved by taking a verse out of its context. The context shows that Paul was admonishing people to be conscientious in their walk so as not to offend a weaker brother. The division made in the text is only incidental to the point he was trying to make. And then, too, the text does not say that there are only three classes of people. What it does say is, "Give no offence, neither to the Yahudim, not to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God."

Now, if this text were given to show a division of humanity, then it leaves the vast majority of the races out entirely, because the word that is translated gentiles is a palpable mistranslation and should be translated Greeks. This is exactly the way the Revised Version gives it, as is also true of most private translations. But you do not even need a Revised Version to discover this error. Any good Bible with a marginal reading will show this to be true. The Greek word that has been translated gentiles in this verse is Hellen and means Greeks, or Greek speaking people. So if, as these men have claimed, this verse proves there are only three classes of people in the world which God now recognizes, then they are the Yahudim, the Greeks and the Christians. Everybody else is left out.

By using the same method of reasoning we could quote Galatians 3:28 and prove that God does not recognize any distinction in the human race; then we could go to the other extreme and quote Colossians 3:11 to prove that God recognizes eight divisions of mankind. In both cases we would be taking the verses out of their context just as these men have done. But all the confusion over this text would have been avoided if the word Greeks had been used instead of gentiles. Paul was writing to the Corinthian. Corinth was in Greece. They had three classes of people there- Yahudi, Greek and Christian. Had Paul been writing to the Romans he no doubt would have said, "Give none offence, neither to the Yahudim, not to the Romans, nor to the Church of God."

Beside these two examples, there are four other places where Hellen has been translated gentiles where it should have been translated Greeks. These are found in Romans2: 9,10; 3:9; and I Corinthians 12:13.

While on this subject, a few words should be said about the way the word gentiles has been used in the Epistle to the Romans, one of the important books in the New Testament. And on this matter I will borrow some thoughts from the late Dr. Wm. Pascoe Goard.

In Dr. Goard's book, "Epistle to the Romans", he has given some illuminating comments on how ethne refers to the ten-tribed Israel. These are found in the fourth and fifth chapters of his book. He shows very clearly the chapter 9, 10 and 11 of Romans refer to ten-tribed Israel. In these chapters the Apostle Paul quotes quite freely from Hosea, Isaiah and Elijah, and as Dr. Goard shows, all these quotations refer to facts in the history of ten-tribed Israel, and not in the history of Judah nor in the history of any other nation. Thus when the word gentiles (Greek word ethne) is used in these three chapters it definitely is ten-tribed Israel. It is not a contrast between Israel and non-Israel peoples. It is contrast between Israel in 975 BC and Israel known as the nations in AD 60.

Do not let the word gentiles mislead you. The Greek word is ethne and means nations. The Apostle Paul in the Israel section of his epistle is merely contrasting Israel's former state when she was known as Israel with her state in his day when she was known as the nations. To use the popularized meaning of the word, they had become gentilized in the sense that they were not known as Israel. Israel was one nation God had called out from among the other nations; now she was just like the other nations.

She had lost her identity so much that the Apostle Paul said that blindness was to stay on Israel until the "fullness of the gentiles" (nations) be come in, (Romans 11:25). This fullness of the gentiles should be fullness of the nations. It is a direct reference to Genesis 48:19, where it is stated that Ephriam was to become a "multitude of nations" in the last days. This is confirmed by the fact that both Dr. Delitzsh's translation of the New Testament in Hebrew, sold by the British and Foreign Bible Society and Ginsburg-Salkinson's New Testament, published by the Trinitarian Bible Society, for the use of the Yahudim, have the very same Hebrew words-me lo bag-goyim-in Romans11: 25, that we find in Genesis 48:19, in the Hebrew Old Testament, and in this verse only. We use the expression "multitude of nations" because it is given as the correct reading in most Bibles in reference to fullness of nations. In other words, Israel was to be blind to her identity until the tribe of Ephraim became a multitude of nations. That time has arrived now and that is the reason our identity as Israel is becoming known. As Isaiah 25:7 reads, "He will destroy in this mountain the face of the coverings cast over all people, and the veil that is spread over the nations". That veil is being lifted now and our real identity and the identity of other nations is becoming known.

Some scholars, in translating Genesis 48:19, where the Hebrew is me lo bag-goyim render it a company of gentile nations. The writer is convinced that a company or multitude of nations is the better translation. However, there is nothing wrong with the translations if the right meaning is attached to the word gentile. That is, they would become so much like other nations that they would not be recognized as Israel. That, of course, is a different meaning given to the word than is meant in the original text.

To summarize: the word gentile is derived from the Latin word gentilis and is only one of several words that are used to translate the Hebrew word goi and the Greek word ethnos into English. The best word to use is nations. It would have been better if the word gentile had never appeared in the English text. Neither goi nor ethnos necessarily mean non-Israel, as has been shown above.

Curtis Clair Ewing

http://assemblyoftrueisrael.com/Documents/Thewordgentile.html

Edited by n2thelight
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Guest shiloh357

I didn't say that the 10 tribes came from Judah.   I said they came from Jacob.   They are the same DNA as the tribe of Judah and they are one nation with Judah and Benjamin.     The notion that they are Gentiles is a "Gentile" theory not supported in the Bible.

I know this may be outside your limited and feeble skill set, but perhaps you might try actually try reading what I said and respond to that.

I said that the company of nations is comprised of those who have trusted in Jesus.  That's the answer. This is the third and last time I am answering that question.   You may not like that answer, but that is the answer.

So who is Israel,and how can you join something back together that was'nt together?

At one time the whole house was together while this was so,who were the gentile tribes within the 12?

Who is Israel?   Israel is the twelve tribes descended from Jacob.  There are no Gentile tribes.   Ezekiel 37 speaks to the reunification of 12 tribes.   They are all one  people, one nation and none of them are Gentiles.   To claim that the 10 tribes were Gentiles makes no sense and is not supported by Scripture.   The Bible makes a clear distinction between the 12 tribes and the Gentile nations.   And it makes a clear distinction between the Church and Israel.  They are radically separate.

Would be wise of you to do a study on the word gentile....Also are you saying that all 12 tribes are Jew's?

As for the Church,they have always been Israel,would love to see the distinction between the two in scripture,thx...

I am not saying that all twelve tribes are Jews, but neither are they Gentiles.   I am well aware of the various uses of the word, Gentile.  

As for Scripture....  

One thing that bears noting is that the names, “Israel” and “Jacob” are used interchangeably in the Word of God to refer to the physical descendents of Abraham. More to the point, “Jacob” is often used in Scripture in a representative sense with respect to the twelve tribes of Israel, and is NEVER used in the Scriptures in any fashion as a reference to the Church.  While so many in the replacement camp seek to apply to themselves the mantel of “The Israel of God,” I think it is important to note that Bible never makes a distinction between the names, “Israel” and “Jacob.” 

 

Here are verses and passages that demonstrate that Jacob and Israel are interchangeably with respect to the physical descendents of Abraham are: Num. 24: 5, 17, Deut. 33:4,5, 8, 9, 10, 28; 1Kings 18:31; 2Kings 17:34; 1Chron. 16:13, 17; Psa. 14:7, 22:23, 53:6, 78:5, 81:4, 106:6, 10, 23, 114:1, 135:4; Is. 9:8,10:20, 14:1, 27:6, 29:23, 40:27, 41:8, 14, 42:24, 43:1, 22, 28, 44:1, 44:2, 21, 43, 45:4, 46:3 48:1, 12, 49:6; Jer. 2:4, 30:10; Eze. 20:5; Mic. 3:1,8,9; Nah. 2:2, Rom. 11:26.

 

As you can see, there are just too many cases where “Israel” and “Jacob” are used interchangeably for there to be any substance to the argument that “Israel” refers to a group of people other than the physical members of the twelve tribes of Jacob/Israel.  As I stated earlier, the Church is never called by the name “Jacob,” nor is it referred to as a spiritual “twelve tribes” or any other such concept. It is impossible for replacement theologians to use “Jacob” and “Israel” interchangeably with respect to the Church.

 

            Another problem that occurs while trying to make the Old Testament references to Israel apply to the Church is that the Bible gives a description of the Church that differs from Israel.  For instance, Israel is a promised a Land, an earthly Kingdom, but the Church is told that our reward/inheritance is laid up in heaven.   God promised to scatter and exile Israel from the Land, temporarily for disobedience, and He made good on that promise.  There are several places in the Old Testament where God recalls the exile but promises a restoration of Israel to the Land. 

 

The following are references to scattering and regathering of Israel: Deut. 30-3-5, Is. 27:12, 40:11, 54:7, Jer. 31:1-4, 8-11; Eze. 20:34, 34:12; Mic. 4:6; Zeph. 3:19.  The Church is never spoken of as being scattered from, much less being regathered to a particular Land.

 

Edited by shiloh357
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In addition to the above, it is also worth noting that God made promises to restore Israel.  No such promises of restoration ever apply to the Church.

The Jewish People will always be God’s People; Jer. 31:35-37

 

God Promises the Jewish People’s return to the land (Jer. 30:3 Isa. 43:5-7; Eze 36: 24; Eze. 37:11-14)

 

God’s promise to reunite all twelve tribes of Jacob/Israel  (Jer. 3:18; Eze. 37:15-23; Hos. 1:10-11)

 

The Lord promises both a physical and spiritual restoration of Israel  (Jer. 31:31-34 Is. 40:1-2; Eze. 36:24-28 Zec. 12:10)

 

 

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I didn't say that the 10 tribes came from Judah.   I said they came from Jacob.   They are the same DNA as the tribe of Judah and they are one nation with Judah and Benjamin.     The notion that they are Gentiles is a "Gentile" theory not supported in the Bible.

I know this may be outside your limited and feeble skill set, but perhaps you might try actually try reading what I said and respond to that.  

I said that the company of nations is comprised of those who have trusted in Jesus.  That's the answer. This is the third and last time I am answering that question.   You may not like that answer, but that is the answer.  

so why do you call all the tribes Jews? Why is this  so hard for you to grasp?  They are not all jews...

I never said that they were all Jews.  I said they were not Gentiles.   They are the descended from Jacob.  The Bible makes that distinction between the Gentile nations and the twelve tribes.  

You keep trying to accuse me of saying what I didn't say.   I guess in the absence of an argument that might reflect something approaching intelligence, all you can muster is false accusations and low-browed arguments.

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"Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over which the holy ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the Church of God, which he hath PURCHASED with his own blood" (KJV).

 

This was the Church that was in the wilderness of Sinai during the time of Moses when God gave His laws and commandments to Israel -- which, of course, His wife (Israel) failed to keep. This is the same people that Jesus "bought back" for his Father with his own blood. The Church in the wilderness was, of course, composed of Israelites; therefore the Church that Yeshua purchased would also have to be composed of Israelites. 

Why are you such an anti-Semite, inchrist? 

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Shiloh

 

 I never said that they were all Jews.  I said they were not Gentiles.   They are the descended from Jacob.  The Bible makes that distinction

But that's exactly what you just did now below

 

In addition to the above, it is also worth noting that God made promises to restore Israel.  No such promises of restoration ever apply to the Church. 

 

The Jewish People will always be God’s People; Jer. 31:35-37

 

God Promises the Jewish People’s return to the land(Jer. 30:3 Isa. 43:5-7; Eze 36: 24; Eze. 37:11-14)

In light of all this you claim to know the meaning of the word gentile, yet you apply it the way the RCC did. 

The Hebrew words for Gentile and in Greek are applied differently. Case in point in Strong's Concordance which shows how the words were applied. The word in hebrew for gentiles did apply to Israelites. 

The word gentile is a misused word and an unfortunate word which you continually borrow from the RCC.

What you have done is taking a word which means NOT OF ROME and changed it to NOT OF ISRAEL,  yet this is not how it is applied or even used in the bible.

I even provided you scripture where God specifically calls the ten tribes HEATHEN and that they will in time be called by another name sons of God, in other words christianized

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

No, you are wrong.  I never said that the 10 tribes are descended from Judah.  That's the first lie you are trying foist.   The second lie you are trying to foist  about what I said is that I said that all ten tribes are Jews.

In today's parlance, we refer to the descendants of Jacob as the "Jews."  We don't know who is from what tribe.  That is just how we say it.  It's not a theological statement.

I understand perfectly the various ways the word, Gentile is used in the Bible. I don't need lessons from heathens like you

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Shiloh

 

 Why are you such an anti-Semite, inchrist?

I wonder what is more antisemitic believing the Israelites are part of the church which scripture clearly teaches or forcing the Israelites out the church a biblical apartheid?

Need I remind you the church was formed by these semitic people? And Christ purchased it with his own blood. You have no biblical grounds to separate church and israel that in itself is replacement theology into something the church was never designed to be....separated.

Further what is more antisemitic that the ten tribes are christianized or the ten tribes never to be christianized? 

 

There are physical Israelites in the church, who have received Jesus.  But the Church is not Israel.  The Church is never called Israel in the Bible.  Israel is never called "The Church" in the NT.  They are two separate entities.

Replacement theology states that God has a new "Israel"  called, "The Church" and that God transferred his promises to biblical Israel to the "Church."   It is a deranged and demented theological position that is rooted in the anti-Semitism of the early church fathers  who hated the Jews and biblical Israel and decided that they were the emblem of God's contempt.

There is another anti-Semitic position that teaches that the church is the continuation of Israel, but that also not supported by Scripture, and contradicts Jesus claims about the church.

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