Behold Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Mars Hill Followers: 7 Topic Count: 87 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 3,795 Content Per Day: 1.35 Reputation: 6 Days Won: 3 Joined: 07/30/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 56 minutes ago, Alan Hales said: The ONLY Biblical definition of the "Gift of tongues", Are the tongues that need an interpretation, In 1 Cor 12. V4, [Gifts], V7, [Given], Actually, that is what your commentary says, but it has nothing to do with the NT. So, there is no need to keep reposting the same "stuff". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alan Hales Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 9 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 406 Content Per Day: 0.13 Reputation: 102 Days Won: 0 Joined: 12/14/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 45 minutes ago, Behold said: Actually, that is what your commentary says, but it has nothing to do with the NT. So, there is no need to keep reposting the same "stuff". Actually. It's what the Bible says, Not what I say. Actually, 1 Cor 12, Is in the New Testament. And there is a need to keep correcting you, as you mislead people. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Behold Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Mars Hill Followers: 7 Topic Count: 87 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 3,795 Content Per Day: 1.35 Reputation: 6 Days Won: 3 Joined: 07/30/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 35 minutes ago, Alan Hales said: Actually. It's what the Bible says, Not what I say. Actually, 1 Cor 12, Is in the New Testament. And there is a need to keep correcting you, as you mislead people. OK, then if you are certain you are right, lets find out. Why are tongues given? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
missmuffet Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Royal Member Followers: 34 Topic Count: 1,990 Topics Per Day: 0.48 Content Count: 48,688 Content Per Day: 11.83 Reputation: 30,343 Days Won: 226 Joined: 01/11/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 Is there a prayer language? My prayers to God have no particular language but they come from my heart. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alan Hales Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 9 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 406 Content Per Day: 0.13 Reputation: 102 Days Won: 0 Joined: 12/14/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 5 minutes ago, Behold said: OK, then if you are certain you are right, lets find out. Why are tongues given? Tongues are given to, [1]Speak in a foreign language, To speak to foreigners. Acts 2: 4:--11. [2]To speak to God, 1 Cor 14: 2. [3]To understand mysteries, 1 Cor 14: 2. [4]To build us up, 1 Cor 14: 4. Jude 20. [5]So someone can give an interpretation, 1 Cor 12: 10. [6]So our spirit can pray, as well as our understanding, 1 Cor 14: 14--15. [7]So we can sing praise and thanks to God, 1 Cor 14: 15--17. [8]So the Holy Spirit can use our tongues to intercede for us, Rom 8: 26--28, Then all things worth for our good, V28. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Behold Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Mars Hill Followers: 7 Topic Count: 87 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 3,795 Content Per Day: 1.35 Reputation: 6 Days Won: 3 Joined: 07/30/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 27 minutes ago, Alan Hales said: Tongues are given to, [1]Speak in a foreign language, To speak to foreigners. Acts 2: 4:--11. [2]To speak to God, 1 Cor 14: 2. [3]To understand mysteries, 1 Cor 14: 2. [4]To build us up, 1 Cor 14: 4. Jude 20. [5]So someone can give an interpretation, 1 Cor 12: 10. [6]So our spirit can pray, as well as our understanding, 1 Cor 14: 14--15. [7]So we can sing praise and thanks to God, 1 Cor 14: 15--17. [8]So the Holy Spirit can use our tongues to intercede for us, Rom 8: 26--28, Then all things worth for our good, V28. No, thats incorrect alan. Here are the reasons for the SIGN GIFT of tongues.. Tongues are given as a SIGN.......... 1st Corinthians 14:22 And SIGNS are for the JEWS.....1st Corinthians 1:22 So, are you a Jew? Then why is it that you dont know that the gift of tongues are for a SIGN, and SIGNS are for the JEWS? Its because your commentary doesn't know it. Its the same reason you dont realize that when Peter the JEW was speaking in tongues in Acts 2 during a JEWISH FEAST of PENTECOST, = THERE WERE NO GENTILES THERE, ALAN.....ONLY JEWS. = ""TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN AND SIGNS ARE FOR THE JEWS.""" So, that is why " the gift tongues" are given, alan Remember that Jesus came doing miracles, signs and wonders?... = that is because a Jewish Jesus came to "the House of Israel", and not to the gentiles.....and that is why a Jewish Messiah was performing SIGNS (miracles) in front of the JEWS........as "jews require a SIGN".... Now, we are finished, Alan. Believe what you like, as im sure you will continue to do., but just remember that "tongues are for a SIGN and SIGNS are for the JEWS".. , as you seemed to have overlooked those verses in your commentary. 1st Corinthians 14:22 1st Corinthians 1:22 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alan Hales Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 9 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 406 Content Per Day: 0.13 Reputation: 102 Days Won: 0 Joined: 12/14/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 (edited) 12 hours ago, Behold said: No, thats incorrect alan. Here are the reasons for the SIGN GIFT of tongues.. Tongues are given as a SIGN.......... 1st Corinthians 14:22 And SIGNS are for the JEWS.....1st Corinthians 1:22 So, are you a Jew? Then why is it that you dont know that the gift of tongues are for a SIGN, and SIGNS are for the JEWS? Its because your commentary doesn't know it. Its the same reason you dont realize that when Peter the JEW was speaking in tongues in Acts 2 during a JEWISH FEAST of PENTECOST, = THERE WERE NO GENTILES THERE, ALAN.....ONLY JEWS. = ""TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN AND SIGNS ARE FOR THE JEWS.""" So, that is why " the gift tongues" are given, alan Remember that Jesus came doing miracles, signs and wonders?... = that is because a Jewish Jesus came to "the House of Israel", and not to the gentiles.....and that is why a Jewish Messiah was performing SIGNS (miracles) in front of the JEWS........as "jews require a SIGN".... Now, we are finished, Alan. Believe what you like, as im sure you will continue to do., but just remember that "tongues are for a SIGN and SIGNS are for the JEWS".. , as you seemed to have overlooked those verses in your commentary. 1st Corinthians 14:22 1st Corinthians 1:22 1 Cor 14: 22, says the unbelievers WILL not understand tongues, As the Greek meaning for, "Will not hear", in V21, Is the same meaning as, "No man understands", In v2. Tongues are one of the signs, for the Believers. Mk 16: 17. They are not just for the Jews, They might have been at first, But today we have a multi culture people, and tongues are the Biblical evidence of the baptism in the Holy Ghost. 1 Cor 1: 22, doesn't say anything about tongues being a sign, You are making things up. Please note, Jn 14: 12, and Mk 16: 17--18 says "THE BELIEVERS", shall do the same works that Jesus did, and The signs will accompany the BELIEVERS, And that means ANYONE who will believe. It wasn't just for the Jews, As the Gentiles were baptised in the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues, Acts 10: 44--46. So you can see how incorrect you are, and how you make things up. I have given you scriptures for the eight Biblical reasons why we speak in tongues, And all you have done, Is, Give your own opinions. Edited August 15, 2016 by Alan Hales Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Behold Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Mars Hill Followers: 7 Topic Count: 87 Topics Per Day: 0.03 Content Count: 3,795 Content Per Day: 1.35 Reputation: 6 Days Won: 3 Joined: 07/30/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 2 minutes ago, Alan Hales said: 1 Cor 14: 22, says the unbelievers WILL not understand tongues, As the Greek meaning for, "Will not hear", in V21, Is the same meaning as, "No man understands", In v2. Tongues are one of the signs, for the Believers. Mk 16: 17. They are not just for the Jews, They might have been at first, But today we have a multi culture people, and tongues are the Biblical evidence of the baptism in the Holy Ghost. 1 Cor 1: 22, doesn't say anything about tongues being a sign, You are making things up. Please note, Jn 14: 12, and Mk 16: 17--18 says "THE BELIEVERS", shall do the same works that Jesus did, and The signs will accompany the BELIEVERS, And that means ANYONE who will believe. It wasn't just for the Jews, As the Gentiles were baptised in the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues, Acts 10: 44--46. Tongues are given as a SIGN.......... 1st Corinthians 14:22 And SIGNS are for the JEWS.....1st Corinthians 1:22 So, are you a Jew? Then why is it that you dont know that the gift of tongues are for a SIGN, and SIGNS are for the JEWS? Its because your commentary doesn't know it. Its the same reason you dont realize that when Peter the JEW was speaking in tongues in Acts 2 during a JEWISH FEAST of PENTECOST, = THERE WERE NO GENTILES THERE, ALAN.....ONLY JEWS. = ""TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN AND SIGNS ARE FOR THE JEWS.""" So, that is why " the gift tongues" are given, alan Remember that Jesus came doing miracles, signs and wonders?... = that is because a Jewish Jesus came to "the House of Israel", and not to the gentiles.....and that is why a Jewish Messiah was performing SIGNS (miracles) in front of the JEWS........as "jews require a SIGN".... Now, we are finished, Alan. Believe what you like, as im sure you will continue to do., but just remember that "tongues are for a SIGN and SIGNS are for the JEWS".. , as you seemed to have overlooked those verses in your commentary. 1st Corinthians 14:22 1st Corinthians 1:22 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ezra Posted August 14, 2016 Group: Royal Member Followers: 16 Topic Count: 134 Topics Per Day: 0.04 Content Count: 8,142 Content Per Day: 2.36 Reputation: 6,612 Days Won: 20 Joined: 11/02/2014 Status: Offline Share Posted August 14, 2016 4 hours ago, missmuffet said: Is there a prayer language? My prayers to God have no particular language but they come from my heart. Exactly. The language of prayer -- according to Scripture -- is each one's language, and the language in which that person thinks. And in effect, it is the language of the heart. If there was indeed a future *prayer language*, then both Christ and His apostles would have made it perfectly clear. What Paul was really saying (1 Cor 14:14) is that if no one (including the speaker) understands what is being said, then only God knows what was said. But that is not the same as *prayer language*. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alan Hales Posted August 15, 2016 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 9 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 406 Content Per Day: 0.13 Reputation: 102 Days Won: 0 Joined: 12/14/2015 Status: Offline Share Posted August 15, 2016 10 hours ago, Behold said: Tongues are given as a SIGN.......... 1st Corinthians 14:22 And SIGNS are for the JEWS.....1st Corinthians 1:22 So, are you a Jew? Then why is it that you dont know that the gift of tongues are for a SIGN, and SIGNS are for the JEWS? Its because your commentary doesn't know it. Its the same reason you dont realize that when Peter the JEW was speaking in tongues in Acts 2 during a JEWISH FEAST of PENTECOST, = THERE WERE NO GENTILES THERE, ALAN.....ONLY JEWS. = ""TONGUES ARE FOR A SIGN AND SIGNS ARE FOR THE JEWS.""" So, that is why " the gift tongues" are given, alan Remember that Jesus came doing miracles, signs and wonders?... = that is because a Jewish Jesus came to "the House of Israel", and not to the gentiles.....and that is why a Jewish Messiah was performing SIGNS (miracles) in front of the JEWS........as "jews require a SIGN".... Now, we are finished, Alan. Believe what you like, as im sure you will continue to do., but just remember that "tongues are for a SIGN and SIGNS are for the JEWS".. , as you seemed to have overlooked those verses in your commentary. 1st Corinthians 14:22 1st Corinthians 1:22 1 Cor 14: 22, says the unbelievers WILL not understand tongues, As the Greek meaning for, "Will not hear", in V21, Is the same meaning as, "No man understands", In v2. Tongues are one of the signs, for the Believers. Mk 16: 17. They are not just for the Jews, They might have been at first, But today we have a multi culture people, and tongues are the Biblical evidence of the baptism in the Holy Ghost. 1 Cor 1: 22, doesn't say anything about tongues being a sign, You are making things up. Please note, Jn 14: 12, and Mk 16: 17--18 says "THE BELIEVERS", shall do the same works that Jesus did, and The signs will accompany the BELIEVERS, And that means ANYONE who will believe. It wasn't just for the Jews, As the Gentiles were baptised in the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues, Acts 10: 44--46. So you can see how incorrect you are, and how you make things up. I have given you scriptures for the eight Biblical reasons why we speak in tongues, And all you have done, Is, Give your own opinions. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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