Azizrasul Posted July 14, 2016 Group: Seeker Followers: 1 Topic Count: 1 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7 Content Per Day: 0.00 Reputation: 7 Days Won: 0 Joined: 07/14/2016 Status: Offline Share Posted July 14, 2016 Why does the word 'begotten' not appear in the four gospels in the original Greek? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Steward George Posted July 14, 2016 Group: Steward Followers: 110 Topic Count: 10,465 Topics Per Day: 1.26 Content Count: 27,767 Content Per Day: 3.33 Reputation: 15,458 Days Won: 129 Joined: 06/30/2001 Status: Online Birthday: 09/21/1971 Steward Share Posted July 14, 2016 If I'm not mistaken, the Greek word used means One and Only and the translators wanted to show the uniqueness of the Son of God in English, so they used the word -- only begotten Son of God. This terminology was used to differentiate those who are born again -- who are also called "sons of God". As it says in Romans, "For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God." It's to show the uniqueness of Jesus as the true unique Son of God. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
FresnoJoe Posted July 15, 2016 Group: Graduated to Heaven Followers: 207 Topic Count: 60 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 8,651 Content Per Day: 1.17 Reputation: 5,761 Days Won: 4 Joined: 01/31/2004 Status: Offline Birthday: 03/04/1943 Share Posted July 15, 2016 8 hours ago, George said: If I'm not mistaken, the Greek word used means One and Only and the translators wanted to show the uniqueness of the Son of God in English, so they used the word -- only begotten Son of God. This terminology was used to differentiate those who are born again -- who are also called "sons of God". As it says in Romans, "For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God." It's to show the uniqueness of Jesus as the true unique Son of God. Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion. I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession. Psalms 2:6-8 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Azizrasul Posted July 16, 2016 Group: Seeker Followers: 1 Topic Count: 1 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7 Content Per Day: 0.00 Reputation: 7 Days Won: 0 Joined: 07/14/2016 Status: Offline Author Share Posted July 16, 2016 So it's an interpretation not an exact translation then? When I do a Boolean search for the word 'Begotten' in the NRSV in the 4 NT Gospels, no results are found. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kwikphilly Posted July 16, 2016 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 96 Topic Count: 307 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 18,134 Content Per Day: 4.63 Reputation: 27,814 Days Won: 327 Joined: 08/03/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted July 16, 2016 Blessings Azizrasul Welcome to Worthy,nice ti meet you As George said the original Koine Greek was "one of a kind" or "one and only,",,,,,no,it is not an interpretation of a translation,it is a transliteration monogenes (adjective monogenes pais-to be more precise))defining the "phrase" or term.......this can be a Topic of contraversy but if you refer to Hebrews 11:17-19 you will see that the same words are used to define Isaac,,,,,Isaac was not Abraham's only son but he was in fact ,the "chosen" son If it merely meant the "only" son then it would not have been worded that way,this way denotes a very unique & special value as no other Hope that helps With love-in Christ,Kwik Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Azizrasul Posted July 17, 2016 Group: Seeker Followers: 1 Topic Count: 1 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 7 Content Per Day: 0.00 Reputation: 7 Days Won: 0 Joined: 07/14/2016 Status: Offline Author Share Posted July 17, 2016 Thanks for the welcome. Why did 50 Christian scholars of the the highest eminence and of different denominations throw the word 'begotten' out and it doesn't appear in the 4 gospels? That is the question that I am asking? Please quote which verse in the 4 gospels the word appears. Thanks Wasalaam Aziz Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
other one Posted July 17, 2016 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 29 Topic Count: 596 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 56,061 Content Per Day: 7.55 Reputation: 27,803 Days Won: 271 Joined: 12/29/2003 Status: Offline Share Posted July 17, 2016 1 hour ago, Azizrasul said: Thanks for the welcome. Why did 50 Christian scholars of the the highest eminence and of different denominations throw the word 'begotten' out and it doesn't appear in the 4 gospels? That is the question that I am asking? Please quote which verse in the 4 gospels the word appears. Thanks Wasalaam Aziz it depends on the translation you are using. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kwikphilly Posted July 17, 2016 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 96 Topic Count: 307 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 18,134 Content Per Day: 4.63 Reputation: 27,814 Days Won: 327 Joined: 08/03/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted July 17, 2016 Blessings,,,, Your welcome,my pleasure Quote Why did 50 Christian scholars of the the highest eminence and of different denominations throw the word 'begotten' out and it doesn't appear in the 4 gospels? That is the question that I am asking? Please quote which verse in the 4 gospels the word appears. As other one just answered,it does depend on what version you are using,,,,,but in my previous reply I just explained(in detail) why the word is not used to "translate",,,a trans-literation is used because it is not one word that is or can be used,,,,,,you are saying "begotten" was "thrown out",,,,,it is not thrown out ,it is not used because you simply cannot translate a word for word when more than one word is used to define something or someone,,,,,,,lin this case it is an adjective monogene that is in question I do have a suggestion,instead of focusing on one word that may or may not have been a better description from the viewpoint of the reader,why not discuss the context? What does begotten mean?"To father or produce an offspring",,,,, That is not enough to define WHO Jesus is & it is not what the original text is proclaiming,,,,and I did give you yet another place in Scripture where the same choice of Words are found,,,,,the ONE of a kind,ONe & ONLY denoted "special virtue",,,,,it is very specific.... Quote It's this last phrase ("only begotten" used in the KJV, NASB and the NKJV) that causes problems. False teachers have latched onto this phrase to try to prove their false teaching that Jesus Christ isn't God; i.e., that Jesus isn't equal in essence to God as the Second Person of the Trinity. They see the word "begotten" and say that Jesus is a created being because only someone who had a beginning in time can be "begotten." What this fails to note is that "begotten" is an English translation of a Greek word. As such, we have to look at the original meaning of the Greek word, not transfer English meanings into the text.So what does monogenes mean? According to the Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (BAGD, 3rd Edition), monogenes has two primary definitions. The first definition is "pertaining to being the only one of its kind within a specific relationship." This is its meaning in Hebrews 11:17when the writer refers to Isaac as Abraham's "only begotten son" (KJV). Abraham had more than one son, but Isaac was the only son he had by Sarah and the only son of the covenant. Therefore, it is the uniqueness of Isaac among the other sons that allows for the use of monogenes in that context. http://www.gotquestions.org/only-begotten-son.html With love-in Christ,Kwik Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kwikphilly Posted July 18, 2016 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 96 Topic Count: 307 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 18,134 Content Per Day: 4.63 Reputation: 27,814 Days Won: 327 Joined: 08/03/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted July 18, 2016 Blessings Yown.... Yes,these also are transliterations & considered "monogenes" but they are very different to the ONLY 2 "adjective monogenes pais" found in the entire Bible & which are irrefutably separate & unique from any other.....the 2 are the same because they are defining "Chosen",not "only",as begotten can infer "Only child" or "only one' means exactly what it says,"there is but one" as in merely "singular " To describe Jesus &/or Isaac is unlike other monogenes,it means one & only,One of a KIND.......this is extremely significant,it depicts another meaning,exclusive Praise Jesus,King of kings & Lord of lords With love-in Christ,Kwik Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kwikphilly Posted July 19, 2016 Group: Worthy Ministers Followers: 96 Topic Count: 307 Topics Per Day: 0.08 Content Count: 18,134 Content Per Day: 4.63 Reputation: 27,814 Days Won: 327 Joined: 08/03/2013 Status: Offline Share Posted July 19, 2016 Blessings Yown,,,, Yes,I do have some knowledge in languages but I really did not want to get in to it,just responding to the OP in what seems to me to be the best way,the heart of the matter(what is significant in pointing to Jesus) rather than the details(my mom used to say"Much ado about nothing" Our only HOPE is in Christ & as this is the "Seekers Lounge" we do what we can to spread the Gospel,,,,,,,,,,,,we can go to the Inner Court if you would like to have a word study Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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