Why did men have more than one wife in OT times

[Guest shiloh357]

1 hour ago, Out of the Shadows said:

There is no Biblical prohibition against a man having multiple wives. 

The Bible also doesn't forbid spousal abuse. 

The Bible doesn't list off every possible sin a person can commit.  It gives us a behavioral paradigm by which to judge what it doesn't address in the light of what it does address.

The Bible in both the NT and the OT gives us only one prescription for marriage:  One man marries one woman and they stay married until they die.  That's God's perfect will for marriage, in a nutshell.   The Bible actually forbids Kings to have more than one wife and those who have multiple wives are not allowed into the ministry or as deacons according to Scripture.

Marriage, outside of God's prescription, any kind of marriage outside His prescription is sin.   Polygamy, bigamy, gay marriage, all of that is outside the revealed will of God.  Every place where Jesus mentioned marriage it was always according to the prescription set up in the Garden of Eden.

We can also look at the lives of those who had more than one wife see how it worked out for the men and/or their wives. 

[Omegaman 3.0]

I do not disagree with out of the shadows, that the Bible does not prohibit polygamy. There is the exception though, for Kings, they were not to do that. You would never know from David and Soloman (the wisest man who ever, according to Jesus). If the wisest man, had many wives, and as a king, disobeyed God by having multiple wives, it seems odd for us to make a big deal of it, one way or the other.
Here in the U.S. where I live, it is not legal. Since we are to obey the authorities, that question is pretty much moot.  However, Jesus did hold up the example, that from the beginning, there was man and there was woman, so I agree with Ayin Jade, that this is the way God ordained that it should work.

From all of this then, I just see:

It is not said to be a sin.

It is not criticised.

Kings are not to do it, but most of us will never be kings, so who cares.

Most men are not capable of managing their families well already, so why caomplicate matters.

Elders are to be the husband of one wife, so that tends to speak to the disireability of non plural marriage.

Paul even sugested, that non marriage is sometimes preferable.

The civil law in most places forbids it.

Seems then, that most bases of covered, and it is only of acedemic interest, not much practical value to discuss.



Those are my observations and opinion.
 

[Ezra]

"Why did men have more than one wife in OT times".

The honest answer is that men -- if left to themselves and unredeemed -- desire as many wives as possible, and this is true in all cultures.

While God did not punish those with multiple wives in the OT, they were clearly in violation of God's plan for human marriage and procreation which is spelled out in Genesis 2.  They also had various problems because of multiple wives.

But Christians need to look beyond that to the eternal marriage of Christ and His "wife" who is called "the Lamb's wife" (the Church).  Human marriage is meant to reflect that eternal union, therefore Christians are to have permanent, heterosexual, and monogamous marriages.

[Omegaman 3.0]

1 minute ago, Ezra said:

The honest answer is that men -- if left to themselves and unredeemed -- desire as many wives as possible, and this is true in all cultures.

You think so? When I was unredeemed, I do not recall disiring multiple wives, I will admit, that multiple women would have been appealing to me. Perhaps in some cultures, having multiple wives was a status symbol, but in the U.S. that is replaced by the Beemer, the motorhome, the fast boat, the truck or the Jeep, a house 4 or 5 times larger than we need, the best Christmas display, the nicest yard, or even the job we hold. I do not think multiple wives is "true in all cultures".

[Running Gator]

1 hour ago, HisFirst said:

Why would you go there tho?

The whole situation just breeds favouritism, jealousy, distrust - just look at the situation with Rachel and Leah.

I do not know why, one is enough for me, that is for sure!  

[Running Gator]

20 minutes ago, Ezra said:

"Why did men have more than one wife in OT times".

The honest answer is that men -- if left to themselves and unredeemed -- desire as many wives as possible, and this is true in all cultures.

While God did not punish those with multiple wives in the OT, they were clearly in violation of God's plan for human marriage and procreation which is spelled out in Genesis 2.  They also had various problems because of multiple wives.

But Christians need to look beyond that to the eternal marriage of Christ and His "wife" who is called "the Lamb's wife" (the Church).  Human marriage is meant to reflect that eternal union, therefore Christians are to have permanent, heterosexual, and monogamous marriages.

I cannot agree with this, prior to being saved I never desired more than one wife and none of the non-saved men I know desire more than one wife.

[missmuffet]

Question: "Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?"

Answer: The question of polygamy is an interesting one in that most people today view polygamy as immoral while the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns it. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible was that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to do with these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?

1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. As we speculate about God’s silence, there are a few key factors to consider. First, while there are slightly more male babies than female babies, due to women having longer lifespans, there have always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5 percent of the world population are women. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatality. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. The significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable situation.

So, it seems that God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period, causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only producing one child each year.

2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [not wives], and they will become one flesh [not fleshes]” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring that having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach...temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.

Ephesians 5:22-33 speaks of the relationship between husbands and wives. When referring to a husband (singular), it always also refers to a wife (singular). “For the husband is the head of the wife [singular] … He who loves his wife [singular] loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [singular], and the two will become one flesh....Each one of you also must love his wife [singular] as he loves himself, and the wife [singular] must respect her husband [singular].” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy were allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church) and the husband-wife relationship falls apart.

3) Why did it change? It is not so much God’s disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God’s restoring marriage to His original plan. Even going back to Adam and Eve, polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it is not the ideal. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves—removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps, but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.

https://gotquestions.org/polygamy.html

[MorningGlory]

3 hours ago, woundeddog said:

back then life was simpler and women where easier to understand so It was not hard for a man to have more than one wife (ducking under the table to avoid flying Hymnals)

Well, you're lucky, WD!  I have a loose hymnal and a strong right arm right here! 

[woundeddog]

2 hours ago, Out of the Shadows said:

There is no Biblical prohibition against a man having multiple wives. 

it is pretty much implied that a Christian should not take  a second wife.

I know it also does not prohibit twisting the heads off kittens, but by instinct you know not to do it

[Running Gator]

44 minutes ago, woundeddog said:

it is pretty much implied that a Christian should not take  a second wife.

I know it also does not prohibit twisting the heads off kittens, but by instinct you know not to do it

True the bible does not prohibit that, yet the bible is also not full of examples of some of the most well known figures of our faith twisting the heads off of kittens, but it is with them being married to multiple women (not to mention the concubines).