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Question about God


zorgblar

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20 minutes ago, Jewels7 said:

Would the father creator really be upset by a lower case g? That's not his name after all. :) 

Little things .

actually that capitol G was put there by the Bible translators to denote it's one of the Godhead and not any of the other gods....   to some of us it matters.....   to the Father I would think he really wouldn't want us to get out nickers in a twist about it as long as it reflects what we are trying to say.

In Hebrew there were no capitols so it was g......    in Greek as I am told is written in all Caps so the little g gods are in caps.

There is no designation in any of the transcripts that I am aware of.

But in this case the context really doesn't lend the sentence being referenced to Baal or Marduk so the small g should not be a problem with communication.......    but some of us are kind of persnickety and really like the "G"....

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:) 

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On 3/1/2017 at 2:41 PM, Jewels7 said:

Would the father creator really be upset by a lower case g? That's not his name after all. :) 

Little things .

 Might I add;

It is most helpful for me for writers to be careful in using lower case and upper case g/G when referencing God or a god.  It  defines whether one is  referencing God or a god.

Example: "So Paul, standing in the midst of the Areopagus, said: “Men of Athens, I perceive that in every way you are very religious.  For as I passed along and observed the objects of your worship, I found also an altar with this inscription: ‘To the unknown god.’ What therefore you worship as unknown, this I proclaim to you. The God who made the world and everything in it, being Lord of heaven and earth, does not live in temples made by man,"...

It becomes confusing when god is used  to mean God, just as it is for one to reference a god as being God. it is not  a minor thing in the context of English translations of the Bible.

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On ‎28‎/‎02‎/‎2017 at 3:23 PM, Yowm said:

When did sons and daughters prophecy in such a way that it became Scripture?

"'And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit on all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams; even on my male servants and female servants in those days I will pour out my Spirit, and they shall prophesy. (Act 2:17-18)

It's one thing to hold God to His Word, it's another to hold His Word to that which it does not say.

You aren't listening. There are two meanings to "prophecy". One is prophetic visions. Two, is simply preaching the Word. But spelled slightly differently.

Matthew 26:68   Saying, Prophesy unto us, thou Christ, Who is he that smote thee? Just to name one example

Acts 2:18   And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:

This is preaching the Word. This isn't involving prophetic visions

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23 minutes ago, Yowm said:

Either way, visions and dreams has not ceased, only new revelation on par with Scripture has ceased...otherwise am I to throw out three of my visions that were instrumental in drawing me  to Jesus out of drugs, Eastern Religions and the occult? Should I ascribe such visions to satan? If so, why would satan desire to bring a person  to Jesus through visions when he already has them bound in false beliefs?

I'm tempted to say that  those who say dreams and visions  are not for today are the ones who have not had any. Are there abuses?  Sure, but why throw out the baby with the bath water? Test  the spirits with His Word. Sorry, you have not shown clear Scriptural proofs that those gifts  have ceased.

I was speaking here specifically of prophecy/prophesy as there are people who tend to get them confused. I never said that visions and dreams have ceased but that they are rare here at best and more often than not only seen in countries where Christianity is forbidden. Prophecy is finished because there are no new prophetic visions to be had since the canon of scripture is finished.

Again you are not understanding me.

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