Oneness claims that John 14:10 states that Jesus is God the Father

[Danger Noodle]

2 hours ago, Limey_Bob said:

At John 16:13~:14, eight times the Apostle John breaks the rules of Greek Grammar by using a masculine pronoun (he) with the neuter word Spirit (pnuma): 

^"13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

¹⁴ He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you."

 

Would you therefore agree with me that the Holy Spirit is a (he) and not an (it)?

Would you argue that a spirit possesses a masculine characteristic? That human gender pronouns are relevant to a spirit? 

Maybe it has arrived as the time for discussing the  'the Johannine Comma'?

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The Johannine Comma

(1 John 5:7-8)

The so-called Johannine Comma (also called the Comma Johanneum) is a sequence of extra words which appear in 1 John 5:7-8 in some early printed editions of the Greek New Testament. In these editions the verses appear thus (we put backets around the extra words):

ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες [ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, ὁ Πατήρ, ὁ Λόγος, καὶ τὸ Ἅγιον Πνεῦμα· καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἔν εἰσι. 8 καὶ τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῇ γῇ] τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα, καὶ οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν.

The King James Version, which was based upon these editions, gives the following translation:

For there are three that bear record [in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth], the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

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(A) External Evidence.

(1) The passage is absent from every known Greek manuscript except eight, and these contain the passage in what appears to be a translation from a late recension of the Latin Vulgate. Four of the eight manuscripts contain the passage as a variant reading written in the margin as a later addition to the manuscript. The eight manuscripts are as follows:

• 61: codex Montfortianus, dating from the early sixteenth century.
• 88: a variant reading in a sixteenth century hand, added to the fourteenth-century codex Regius of Naples.
• 221: a variant reading added to a tenth-century manuscript in the Bodleian Library at Oxford.
• 429: a variant reading added to a sixteenth-century manuscript at Wolfenbüttel.
• 629: a fourteenth or fifteenth century manuscript in the Vatican.
• 636: a variant reading added to a sixteenth-century manuscript at Naples.
• 918: a sixteenth-century manuscript at the Escorial, Spain.
• 2318: an eighteenth-century manuscript, influenced by the Clementine Vulgate, at Bucharest, Rumania.

(2) The passage is quoted by none of the Greek Fathers, who, had they known it, would most certainly have employed it in the Trinitarian controversies (Sabellian and Arian). Its first appearance in Greek is in a Greek version of the (Latin) Acts of the Lateran Council in 1215.

 

 

Edited April 3, 2017 by Danger Noodle

[Limey_Bob]

On 4/2/2017 at 6:47 PM, Danger Noodle said:

Why would you prefer to believe Jesus is not the Father?

 Please offer some proof that Jesus is the Father and then secondly, explain the use of the verb (esmen) in the first person plural at John 10:30 "we are" not ... I am the Father  (which would be a first person singular).

Edited April 5, 2017 by Limey_Bob

[Danger Noodle]

34 minutes ago, Limey_Bob said:

 Please offer some proof that Jesus is the Father and then secondly, explain the use of the verb (esmen) in the first person plural at John 10:30 "we are" not ... I am the Father  (which would be a first person singular).

 

 

“Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” (which means, God with us). Matthew 1:23

100 Bible Verses about Jesus Is God

[Limey_Bob]

12 minutes ago, Danger Noodle said:

 

 

“Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” (which means, God with us). Matthew 1:23

100 Bible Verses about Jesus Is God

Trinitarians such as I believe that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is both fully God and fully man. I don't need 100 verses trying to prove to me what I already believe, kindly answer my question, if you believe that Jesus is God the Father then prove that, quote one single verse, don't just spam endless links.

[Danger Noodle]

16 minutes ago, Limey_Bob said:

Trinitarians such as I believe that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is both fully God and fully man. I don't need 100 verses trying to prove to me what I already believe, kindly answer my question, if you believe that Jesus is God the Father then prove that, quote one single verse, don't just spam endless links.

I don't spam endless links. Please don't play games with the topic. 
You've said, you believe Jesus was fully God. It is disingenuous at best to now tell me to prove what you've already said you accept as fact. That Jesus was God. 

When Matthew 1:23 has God's angel telling us Jesus name to be Immanuel, meaning God with us, the answer was given to your question over 2000 years ago. God with us. 

 

[Deborah_]

"Jesus is God" is NOT the same as "Jesus is the Father."

Jesus prayed to the Father, and was spoken to by the Father. So they can't be one and the same.

[Danger Noodle]

18 hours ago, Deborah_ said:

"Jesus is God" is NOT the same as "Jesus is the Father."

Jesus prayed to the Father, and was spoken to by the Father. So they can't be one and the same.

So then who is the Father Jesus was speaking to if God is not the Father in Heaven? 

 

[Danger Noodle]

Question: "If Jesus was God, how could He pray to God? Was Jesus praying to Himself?"

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When Jesus, the eternal Son of God, took upon Himself sinless humanity He also took on the form of a servant, giving up His heavenly glory (Philippians 2:5-11). As the God-man, He had to learn obedience (Hebrews 5:8) to His Father as He was tempted by Satan, accused falsely by men, rejected by His people, and eventually crucified. His praying to His heavenly Father was to ask for power (John 11:41-42) and wisdom (Mark 1:35, 6:46). His praying showed His dependence upon His Father in His humanity to carry out His Father's plan of redemption, as evidenced in Christ's high priestly prayer in John 17. His praying demonstrated that He ultimately submitted to His Father's will, which was to go to the cross and pay the penalty (death) for our breaking God's law (Matthew 26:31-46). Of course, He rose bodily from the grave, winning forgiveness and eternal life for those who repent of sin and believe in Him as the Savior.

https://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-pray-God.html

 

 

CARM.org If Jesus is God, then who did He pray to?

 

by Matt Slick

This is a very common question, and the answer is found in understanding the Trinity and the incarnation of Jesus.

Edited April 6, 2017 by Danger Noodle

[Limey_Bob]

On 4/3/2017 at 3:14 PM, Bible_Gazer said:

So does the Holy Ghost have a mind of its own ? like Jesus and God

Father, Son and Holy Spirit all have one single common mind and will, as all are the same one single God, and if God had three minds and three wills then he'd be three gods. However,in one sense (as a human being), Christ does possess a mind separate from his Father and the Holy Spirit - his human mind.

[Limey_Bob]

On 4/5/2017 at 3:19 PM, Danger Noodle said:

 

When Matthew 1:23 has God's angel telling us Jesus name to be Immanuel, meaning God with us, the answer was given to your question over 2000 years ago. God with us. 

 

I agree that Jesus is God with us, that he (the Son of God) is fully and completely Yahweh God. But that is not the issue under discussion on this thread, the issue at hand is this: IS JESUS GOD THE FATHER? So Noodle, why do you claim that Jesus is the Father? What evidence do you have?