Why the Difference -- Ears vs. Ear??

[Got?'s]

This is something I've pondered and researched, but haven't found answers to ...

Why is there a difference in scripture between the use of the plural "ears" vs. the singular "ear"?

 

• "He who has ears, let him hear" as seen in:

Matthew 11:15, Matthew 13:9, Matthew 13:43, Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35

And

• "He who has an ear, let him hear" as seen in:

Rev 2:7, Rev 2:11, Rev 2:17, Rev 2:29, Rev 3:6, Rev 3:13, Rev 3:22

 

I welcome answers

[listener24]

On 12/31/2017 at 7:05 PM, Got?'s said:

This is something I've pondered and researched, but haven't found answers to ...

Why is there a difference in scripture between the use of the plural "ears" vs. the singular "ear"?

 

• "He who has ears, let him hear" as seen in:

Matthew 11:15, Matthew 13:9, Matthew 13:43, Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35

And

• "He who has an ear, let him hear" as seen in:

Rev 2:7, Rev 2:11, Rev 2:17, Rev 2:29, Rev 3:6, Rev 3:13, Rev 3:22

 

I welcome answers

Wow, interesting!

Old answer:

In the first case, it seems to be more realated to a choice. The decision to hear or not to hear.

In the other case, it seems to be more related to the very "nature" of someone. Having or not having the ears, the "tools" to understand.

CORRECTION:

sorry, I did read wrong the first statement.

I think it may be just a language issue as @GandalfTheWise said.

Edited January 2, 2018 by listener24

[GandalfTheWise]

It's also possible that this is only a stylistic difference since ears appears in the synoptic gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) and ear only appears in Revelation.   The synoptic gospels are rooted in the regions around Jerusalem where the primary language used was likely Aramaic (with Greek as a possible second or third language).  In contrast, Revelation was written much later and was more rooted in Greek language and Gentile believers.  

There are also a few differences regarding the form of the Greek verb "to hear" in the gospels versus Revelation.  In the case of the gospels, this was referring to hearing the ongoing words of Jesus which were being spoken at the time.  In Revelation, it is for a single written message that would be read and heard at a given time.  The difference (especially in verbs) might just be attributable to that type of difference.

[GandalfTheWise]

A few more details on this as a FWIW:

 ὁ ἔχων ὦτα ἀκουέτω   Matt 11:15, 13:9, 13:43  SBLGNT   (He having ears, hear!)

Ὃς ἔχει ὦτα ἀκούειν ἀκουέτω  Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35  (with Mark 4:23 being similar) SBLGNT  (He who has ears to hear, hear!)

ὁ ἔχων οὖς ἀκουσάτω τί τὸ πνεῦμα λέγει ταῖς ἐκκλησίαις   8 times in Revelation   (He having [an] ear, hear!  what the Spirit is saying to the churches)

Εἴ τις ἔχει οὖς ἀκουσάτω.   Rev 13:9 SBLGNT (If any has [an] ear, hear!)

In all cases, the person with the ear or ears is in the 3rd person singular as is the imperative verb.  In the gospel verses, the verb to hear is in the present tense which tends to emphasize an ongoing action.  In contrast  in the Revelation verses, the verb to hear is in the aorist tense which tends to emphasize the hearing as a complete action.  To get an idea of this difference, consider this sentence.   When I was traveling in the car yesterday, I read a book.   To say "I was traveling" is to treat the travel as more of an ongoing process, it says nothing about where I was going or how long I was doing it, just that I was doing it for some indefinite period of time that started before and ended after reading the book.  To say "I read a book" is to treat the reading sort of like a point in time type of action (even though it was a process that took time).  This is roughly the difference between the sense of the present and aorist imperatives in these verses.   In one, the emphasis is more on the hearing as something ongoing whereas in the other the emphasis is more on hearing the particular message.

The last verse given above in Revelation (13:9) has an additional nuance.  The other verses simply state the one having ears (or ear) whereas this last one says "IF anyone has [an] ear".

[Got?'s]

Thank you for all the well thought out responses here!!  I am slow to respond because I reflect and talk to the Ruach Hakodesh (my recently learned Hebrew) about each  ❤️  I am so happy to have found this site with so many knowledgeable believers!

[Joulre2abba]

On 12/31/2017 at 7:05 PM, Got?'s said:

This is something I've pondered and researched, but haven't found answers to ...

Why is there a difference in scripture between the use of the plural "ears" vs. the singular "ear"?

 

• "He who has ears, let him hear" as seen in:

Matthew 11:15, Matthew 13:9, Matthew 13:43, Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35

And

• "He who has an ear, let him hear" as seen in:

Rev 2:7, Rev 2:11, Rev 2:17, Rev 2:29, Rev 3:6, Rev 3:13, Rev 3:22

 

I welcome answers

That's an interesting observation. My first thought as a reason why is.. different translators who wrote different sections of the NT. It's interesting that it's consistent between the gospels and the revelation verses. It isn't dropping any bricks on someone to indicate whether the difference in plural or singular is intended to mean anything profound. But then I'm just taking a stab in the dark.

[missmuffet]

On 12/31/2017 at 4:05 PM, Got?'s said:

This is something I've pondered and researched, but haven't found answers to ...

Why is there a difference in scripture between the use of the plural "ears" vs. the singular "ear"?

 

• "He who has ears, let him hear" as seen in:

Matthew 11:15, Matthew 13:9, Matthew 13:43, Mark 4:9, Luke 8:8, Luke 14:35

And

• "He who has an ear, let him hear" as seen in:

Rev 2:7, Rev 2:11, Rev 2:17, Rev 2:29, Rev 3:6, Rev 3:13, Rev 3:22

 

I welcome answers

You've been thinking too hard