Eleven Old Testament Prophets teach that Jesus Christ is Jehovah God on 16 Occasions

[KiwiChristian]

Eleven Old Testament Prophets teach that Jesus Christ is Jehovah God on 16 Occasions

1. Moses: The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob Who appeared to Moses at the burning bush revealed His Name as ‘I AM’ (Exodus 3:14,15). Jesus revealed that He was the true God by stating that ‘Before Abraham was, I AM’, and ‘If ye believe not that I am, ye shall die in your sins.’ (John 8:58,24).

2. David: God told David that David’s son would be David’s God. ‘The LORD (Jehovah) said unto my Lord (Adonai), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.’ (Psalm 110:1). Jesus applied this to Himself in Matthew 22:41-45 as a question: ‘If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?’ This shows that Jesus Christ would be both a man descended from David and David’s God.

3. Solomon: God has a son. ‘What is his name, and what is his son’s name?’ (Proverbs 30:4).

4. Isaiah: a) The Mighty God would be both man and God the Son. ‘For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: ..And his name shall be called …the Mighty God…’ (Isaiah 9:6).
b) God the Son who created the heavens and the earth, would be sent to earth by Jehovah the Father and by God the Holy Spirit to save man. (Isaiah 48:12,13,16).
c) Isaiah saw the King, Jehovah of hosts on the throne in heaven, who asked Isaiah ‘who will go for us?’ (Isaiah 6:1-8,5). (‘us’=trinity). In John 12:37-41, John said of Jesus, ‘These things said Esaias when he saw his (Jesus) glory, and spake of him (Jesus).’ Jesus was the King, Jehovah of hosts that Isaiah saw.

5. Jeremiah: ‘Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch (Jesus’ humanity), and a King shall reign and prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth. In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, THE LORD (Jehovah) OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS (Jesus’ Deity).’ (Jeremiah 23:5,6).

6. Ezekiel: Ezekiel prophesied that the east gate of Jerusalem will be shut, as it is today, ‘because the LORD (Jehovah), the God of Israel, has entered in by it, therefore it shall be shut.’ (Ezekiel 44:1,2). Question: When did Jehovah, the God of Israel enter the east gate of Jerusalem? It was when Jesus Christ entered it on Palm Sunday before His crucifixion in Luke 19:28-48. He rode a donkey from the Mount of Olives through the east gate into the temple situated just behind it. This proves that Jesus is God.

7. Daniel: a) When King Nebuchadnezzar threw the 3 Hebrew men into the furnace, he saw a fourth person walking in the furnace and protecting them, who was identified as the Son of God (Daniel 3:25).
b) The Son of man (Christ) came to the Ancient of days (God the Father) to receive the kingdom (7:9-14).

8. Hosea: Jehovah will return to ‘my place’ (heaven), till the Jews admit their offence of killing Jesus. ‘Hear the word of the LORD (Jehovah) (4:1),.I will go and return to my place (heaven), till they (Jews) acknowledge their offence (of killing Jesus), and seek my face: in their affliction (7 year tribulation) they (Jews) will seek me early.’ Jehovah the Son came from heaven to be born of Mary as a man, he was rejected and crucified by the Jews. The resurrected Lord Jesus returned to heaven. Jesus will only return when the Jews acknowledge their offence of killing Jesus. This occurs after the 7 year tribulation.

9. Micah: Micah prophesied that the eternal second member of the trinity would be born as a human baby in Bethlehem in Micah 5:2, ‘But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he (Jesus Christ, God the Son) come forth unto me (God the Father) that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting’.

10. Zechariah: a) ‘Thus saith the LORD (Jehovah) my God; (v.4). If ye think good, give me my price; So they weighed for my price thirty pieces of silver (v.12)….I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them to the potter in the house of the LORD’ (Zechariah 11:4,12,13). These three prophecies were fulfilled in Judas betraying Jesus Christ in Matthew 26:14-16 and 27:3-10.
b) When Jesus Christ returns to earth, He is identified as Jehovah God whom Israel pierced on the cross. ‘I (Jehovah) will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem,...they (Israel) shall look upon me (Jehovah) whom they have pierced’ (Zechariah 12:9-10). Jesus fulfilled this in John 19:37.
c) When Jesus Christ returns to earth on the Mount of Olives, He is identified as Jehovah God (Zech 14).
‘Then shall the LORD (Jehovah) go forth and fight against those nations,…And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives (v.3-4)....the LORD (Jehovah) my God shall come, and all the saints with thee (v.5)….the LORD (Jehovah) shall be king over all the earth …’ (Zechariah 14:3,4,5,9). When Jesus ascended to heaven from the Mount of Olives, two angels told those witnesses present that ‘this same Jesus shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.’ (Acts 1:10-11).

11. Malachi: Malachi wrote of ‘the Lord (Adonai, God) whom you seek shall suddenly come to his temple (in Jerusalem).’ (Malachi 3:1). Jesus fulfilled this in John 2:13-21 at the start of His ministry. 
 

[TrevorL]

Greetings KiwiChristian,

 

2 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

1. Moses: The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob Who appeared to Moses at the burning bush revealed His Name as ‘I AM’ (Exodus 3:14,15). Jesus revealed that He was the true God by stating that ‘Before Abraham was, I AM’, and ‘If ye believe not that I am, ye shall die in your sins.’ (John 8:58,24).

Please note that the KJV translators rendered the phrase as “I am he” in both John 8:24 and John 8:28, showing that they did not consider that Jesus was quoting Exodus 3:14 on these two occasions. I also notice that you carefully avoided John 8:28 as this does not teach Jesus’ divinity, but his humanity. These two verses set the context of the usage of this expression in John 8:58, and it also should be translated “I am he”. Thus even here, where the KJV is incorrect, Jesus is not alluding to or quoting Exodus 3:14.Rather Exodus 3:14 is better translated as “I will be” as per Tyndale and the RV and RSV margins, and has no direct connection with John 8:24,28,58. This future tense is confirmed by Exodus 3:12 and 6:1-8.

 

2 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

2. David: God told David that David’s son would be David’s God. ‘The LORD (Jehovah) said unto my Lord (Adonai), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.’ (Psalm 110:1). Jesus applied this to Himself in Matthew 22:41-45 as a question: ‘If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?’ This shows that Jesus Christ would be both a man descended from David and David’s God.

Psalm 110:1 does not suggest that Jesus is God, rather it teaches that Jesus would be David’s Lord. Please also note that in comparison to the title of this thread, Jesus is shown to be distinct from Yahweh, and was destined to sit at Yahweh’s right hand. The answer is David's Lord would be the Son of God.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

Edited March 10, 2018 by TrevorL

[4LdKHVCzRDj2]

2 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

Eleven Old Testament Prophets teach that Jesus Christ is Jehovah God

"Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip?
He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?" - John 14:9

"The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You,
    but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.”" - John 10:33

"God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth." - John 4:24

"He who does not love does not know God, for God is love." - 1 John 4:8

"Greater love has no one than this, than to lay down one's life for his friends." - John 15:13

"For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me." - John 6:38

"And he who sees Me sees Him who sent Me." - John 12:45

 

Glory to God! Amen.

"For there are three that bear witness in heaven:
    the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one." - 1 John 5:7

Edited March 10, 2018 by 4LdKHVCzRDj2

[KiwiChristian]

8 hours ago, TrevorL said:

Greetings KiwiChristian,

 

Please note that the KJV translators rendered the phrase as “I am he” in both John 8:24 and John 8:28, showing that they did not consider that Jesus was quoting Exodus 3:14 on these two occasions. I also notice that you carefully avoided John 8:28 as this does not teach Jesus’ divinity, but his humanity. These two verses set the context of the usage of this expression in John 8:58, and it also should be translated “I am he”. Thus even here, where the KJV is incorrect, Jesus is not alluding to or quoting Exodus 3:14.Rather Exodus 3:14 is better translated as “I will be” as per Tyndale and the RV and RSV margins, and has no direct connection with John 8:24,28,58. This future tense is confirmed by Exodus 3:12 and 6:1-8.

 

 

 

Yes, the KJV added the word "he". Your explanation for this is just your assumption or your opinion.The KJV translated CERTAINLY knew and believed that Jesus is God.

The phrase "I will be" is the ridiculous JW claim which is totally false.

The correct original is "μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι egō ἐγώ" which shows that divine name.

 

8 hours ago, TrevorL said:

 

 

Psalm 110:1 does not suggest that Jesus is God, rather it teaches that Jesus would be David’s Lord. Please also note that in comparison to the title of this thread, Jesus is shown to be distinct from Yahweh, and was destined to sit at Yahweh’s right hand. The answer is David's Lord would be the Son of God.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

No, it does not mean that.

Also, you forget the many other passages like John 20:28, Zechariah 12:10 ( when was God pierced? ), 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again KiwiChristian,

 

15 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

Yes, the KJV added the word "he". Your explanation for this is just your assumption or your opinion.The KJV translated CERTAINLY knew and believed that Jesus is God.

Yes the KJV translators were Trinitarians and they show their bias in John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14. But even these Trinitarians did not translate the same phrase in John 8:24 and John 8:28 as "I AM". Translating both of these as “I am he” shows that the KJV translators were not connecting these with Exodus 3:14. This rendition gives a different sense and has the same sense as when the blind man used this expression in John 9:9.

 

15 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

The phrase "I will be" is the ridiculous JW claim which is totally false.

Tyndale and the RV and RSV margins render the Divine Name as “I will be”. The JWs could have some credit if they endorse the future tense, but in general I do not accept JW teachings including the JW exposition of the Divine Name, especially as they use “Jehovah” instead of “Yahweh”. As stated previously the future tense is confirmed by Exodus 3:12 and 6:1-8. These speak of God’s future activity associated with His Name to bring Israel out of Egypt and into the Promised Land.

 

15 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

The correct original is "μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι egō ἐγώ" which shows that divine name.

The Divine Name was given in Hebrew, not Greek.

 

15 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

No, it does not mean that.

I suggest that you consider Peter’s exposition of Psalm 110:1 in Acts 2, where he says that God has exalted Jesus to become both Lord and Christ. Psalm 110:1 is the clearest and simplest verification of the distinction between Yahweh who is God the Father, and His Son the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, David's Lord. Psalm 110:1 is extensively quoted and expounded in the Book of Hebrews. None of these quotations and expositions of Psalm 110:1 in any way support what you claimed.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

Edited March 11, 2018 by TrevorL

[Justin Adams]

Yeshua means Yahweh is Salvation.

[brakelite]

"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son.....". John 3:16. If God gave His Son, then it must be that He had a Son to give. We all know who the Son is...Jesus Christ. But Who is the God Who sent Him? Is He the same entity as the Son, or different? Is He the trinity? Did a trinity send a son? Is the Son the son of a trinity? One can get into quite the confusing muddle when attempting to harmonize all the conflicting trinitarian formulas and creeds. I think it best we simply accept what scripture teaches, and not step beyond what it reveals. 

God Almighty, Yahweh, the Father, gave His Son, Yeshua for the human race. The Son may correctly and rightly be worshipped and honored as God, for He is His Father's Son. Like Father, like Son. The Son is the express image of the person of the Father. The Son demonstrated all the loving merciful and compassionate attributes of the Father whilst on earth, thus He could say, "if ye have seen Me, ye have seen the Father". The Father Himself called His Son 'God'. Yet the Father and the Son are two distinct personalities. Independent, yet in perfect agreement on all things. In that sense, they are one. And as the letter to the Hebrews informs us, Jesus has inherited His Father's name. God. Yahweh. Thus it was His by divine right...in precisely the same way we inherit our own father's name. 

Yet the Son, as previous to His incarnation, shall in the end once again be in subjection to His God, His Father. This unquestioned superiority in rank as pertaining to the Father is not allowable within any trinitarian concept, yet is clearly revealed in scripture, both in Paul's writings in 1 Corinthians and in Jesus's own words "My Father is greater than I", and "I go to your God and My God", and the several occasions where He stated that He was sent by the Father. I think, however, because it is not presented anywhere in the Bible as such, we need to refrain from speaking of Jesus and the holy Spirit as 'God the Son' and 'God the holy Spirit'. Such titles are assumptions, and unbiblical. 

[KiwiChristian]

11 hours ago, TrevorL said:

Greetings again KiwiChristian,

 

Yes the KJV translators were Trinitarians and they show their bias in John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14. But even these Trinitarians did not translate the same phrase in John 8:24 and John 8:28 as "I AM". Translating both of these as “I am he” shows that the KJV translators were not connecting these with Exodus 3:14. This rendition gives a different sense and has the same sense as when the blind man used this expression in John 9:9.

 

Tyndale and the RV and RSV margins render the Divine Name as “I will be”. The JWs could have some credit if they endorse the future tense, but in general I do not accept JW teachings including the JW exposition of the Divine Name, especially as they use “Jehovah” instead of “Yahweh”. As stated previously the future tense is confirmed by Exodus 3:12 and 6:1-8. These speak of God’s future activity associated with His Name to bring Israel out of Egypt and into the Promised Land.

 

The Divine Name was given in Hebrew, not Greek.

 

I suggest that you consider Peter’s exposition of Psalm 110:1 in Acts 2, where he says that God has exalted Jesus to become both Lord and Christ. Psalm 110:1 is the clearest and simplest verification of the distinction between Yahweh who is God the Father, and His Son the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, David's Lord. Psalm 110:1 is extensively quoted and expounded in the Book of Hebrews. None of these quotations and expositions of Psalm 110:1 in any way support what you claimed.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

Trinitarian bias?

Then ALL transators of ALL Bibles are trinitarians.

Tell me, what translation do YOU use?

Ignore the word "trinity". its not important.
 

The Bible clearly shows that there are three "beings" that are referred to as "God" ( deity ).

 

Thats good enough for me.

[TrevorL]

Greetings again KiwiChristian,

 

6 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

Trinitarian bias?

Then ALL transators of ALL Bibles are trinitarians.

Not all translators have been Trinitarians. Please consider Tyndale’s translation of Exodus 3:14:

Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

Now I do not know if Tyndale was a Trinitarian or not, but somewhere between the 1520s and 1611 there was a change agreed upon regarding Exodus 3:14. I do not know how many of the intervening Bibles translated this as “I will be”, but Tyndale understood “Ehyeh” as “I will be” in both Exodus 3:12 and Exodus 3:14, while the KJV translators translated “Ehyeh” as “I will be” in Exodus 3:12 and “I AM” in Exodus 3:14.

 

6 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

Tell me, what translation do YOU use?

I have mainly used the KJV. I now also use an interlinear RV/KJV when I read a chapter of the Bible each morning. I now also read from a NASB Study Bible in most of our meetings. Usually the reader or speaker uses the KJV, but not exclusively. If I study a chapter or verse I sometimes compare a number of translations, and use a few reference books for understanding the range of meaning for a particular word.

 

6 hours ago, KiwiChristian said:

The Bible clearly shows that there are three "beings" that are referred to as "God" ( deity ).

Judges and also Angels are sometimes referred to, by using the word “Elohim”, and this is because they represent God, not because they are God. I believe that there is only one God the Father, and that our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. When the Divine titles and Name are used for Jesus, it is because he represents His Father, not because He is God Himself.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

[KiwiChristian]

21 hours ago, TrevorL said:

Greetings again KiwiChristian,

 

Not all translators have been Trinitarians. Please consider Tyndale’s translation of Exodus 3:14:

Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

Now I do not know if Tyndale was a Trinitarian or not, but somewhere between the 1520s and 1611 there was a change agreed upon regarding Exodus 3:14. I do not know how many of the intervening Bibles translated this as “I will be”, but Tyndale understood “Ehyeh” as “I will be” in both Exodus 3:12 and Exodus 3:14, while the KJV translators translated “Ehyeh” as “I will be” in Exodus 3:12 and “I AM” in Exodus 3:14.

 

I have mainly used the KJV. I now also use an interlinear RV/KJV when I read a chapter of the Bible each morning. I now also read from a NASB Study Bible in most of our meetings. Usually the reader or speaker uses the KJV, but not exclusively. If I study a chapter or verse I sometimes compare a number of translations, and use a few reference books for understanding the range of meaning for a particular word.

 

Judges and also Angels are sometimes referred to, by using the word “Elohim”, and this is because they represent God, not because they are God. I believe that there is only one God the Father, and that our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. When the Divine titles and Name are used for Jesus, it is because he represents His Father, not because He is God Himself.

 

Kind regards
Trevor

What texts or manuscripts did tyndale use?

 

ego eimi is I AM