OldCoot Posted September 6, 2018 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 4 Topic Count: 13 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,192 Content Per Day: 0.48 Reputation: 429 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/29/2017 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/12/1957 Share Posted September 6, 2018 1 hour ago, Da Puppers said: You seem to be reluctant to believe that the wrath of God did not begin in 70 AD, You must have me confused with someone else. I never stated that I believed the wrath of God began in 70AD. The dispersion of the nation started at that time. But as Paul stated, God has not rejected His people Israel. But it still remains. Jacob (Israel) will be brought, kicking and screaming, to the point where they will acknowledge Yeshua and cry out to Him in their affliction. The prophets all make that clear. Hosea wrote specifically that Yeshua would return to His place until the nation acknowledged their offense of rejecting Him and petition Him to return. Yeshua emphasized that point in Matthew 23. And Jeremiah said that it would be a time of Jacob's trouble, unlike anything before, but Jacob (Israel) would be saved out of it. In none of that do I see the wrath of God poured out onto corporate Israel. I do see punishment, but not wrath. God does indeed chastise those He loves. He never pours out His wrath on those He loves. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OldCoot Posted September 6, 2018 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 4 Topic Count: 13 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,192 Content Per Day: 0.48 Reputation: 429 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/29/2017 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/12/1957 Share Posted September 6, 2018 Just to clarify and reduce any uncertainty, when do you think the passages apply to Israel? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OldCoot Posted September 7, 2018 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 4 Topic Count: 13 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,192 Content Per Day: 0.48 Reputation: 429 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/29/2017 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/12/1957 Share Posted September 7, 2018 (edited) Now that you have done that... please answer the question as written..... when do you think the passages apply to Israel? I will amplify a little.... what period of history? Edited September 7, 2018 by OldCoot Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OldCoot Posted September 7, 2018 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 4 Topic Count: 13 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,192 Content Per Day: 0.48 Reputation: 429 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/29/2017 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/12/1957 Share Posted September 7, 2018 27 minutes ago, Da Puppers said: I guess i don't l know which ones you are referring to. Please state which scripture. The PuP Go back to your post prior to the one where I first asked this question and see. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OldCoot Posted September 7, 2018 Group: Diamond Member Followers: 4 Topic Count: 13 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 1,192 Content Per Day: 0.48 Reputation: 429 Days Won: 0 Joined: 06/29/2017 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/12/1957 Share Posted September 7, 2018 (edited) If Ezekiel 5 is at the beginning of the time of Jacob's trouble or great tribulation period, then how is it that Israel is restored from among the nations in Ezekiel 36-37 and the beginning of the nations coming against Israel is in Ezekiel 38-39? If you claim that God's wrath is poured out on Israel during the tribulation, and that is shown in places like Chapter 5, 16, etc, when did they then become a nation prior to chapter 5? Ezekiel starts the entire book stating that the vision was given while in the exile in Babylon. I still contend that the description of Ezekiel in those chapters you reference are the desolations and dispersion that occurred in the 1st -2nd centuries primarily, but also over the centuries from the Babylonian exile till recently. But the scriptures do say that the people will be regathered... a second time.... and will never again be uprooted from the land. And the scripture in Isaiah that states this delineates that the 1st gathering was NOT the bringing out of Egypt which was not a regathering. It is a 2nd regathering of the dispersed of the Land. And your focus on Ezekiel leaves out chapter 4. The days that both Judah and Israel will be punished. Each day equating to a year. A total of 430. 70 of those ticked on in the Babylonian exile. That left 360. But it says in Leviticus 26, that if after their punishment they remain in rebellion, the length of their punishment would be multiplied 7 times. 360 remaining years, times 7, is 2520 years. 2520 years multiplied by the 360 day Hebrew Lunar calendar is 907200 days. 907200 days divided by our 365.25 day solar calendar is 2483.8 years. The end of the 70 years in Babylon, when Cyrus allowed the Hebrews to return to the land, was in roughly the early fall of 537BC. Which would be -536.4 for our calculations. -536.4 plus the 2483.8 years is 1947.4. There is no "zero" year between BC and AD, so we have to add 1 to the calculation. That brings it to 1948.4, or roughly May 1948 when Israel became a nation again. The description of Ezekiel of the desolations is the period between Chapter 4 and Chapter 36, which is the regathering beginning, initially in unbelief. The period Ezekiel is referring to that you are referencing is the desolations and dispersions that occur prior to their regarding in Chapter 36, of which Ezekiel laid out in chapter 4 as when that regathering would happen. So, you see why I disagree with your assertion. Edited September 7, 2018 by OldCoot spelling Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts