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If Book of Enoch isn't scripture why did Jesus literally call it so?


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Why did Jesus quote from The Book of Enoch and refer to it as Scripture?

In Mark 12 Jesus is having a dialogue with the Sadducees and the question comes up about marriage in heaven. Jesus said they err in their question because they do no know the Scriptures and then proceeds to explain that angels do not marry. I have been reading the Word for a decade plus now and have never came across a Scripture declaring that angels do not marry, yet Jesus rebuked them for not knowing Scripture. In I Enoch 15, the "Lord of spirits" declares that because the angels are everlasting, they have not been appointed wives. That is the first and only place I have ever read that and Jesus equates knowing the Scripture to knowing the angels do not marry. Why do Christians vehemently oppose the book if our Lord referenced it? 

 

@Yowm but thats not my deduction. Jesus clearly tells the Sadducees they are in error for not knowing Scripture and then answers their questions and says angels do no marry. He says angels not marrying is in the Scripture according to the context in which Mark was written.

@Yowm it won't let me respond any other way maybe because I'm new but like I said Jesus rebuked the Sadducees for not knowing that angels don't get married. What was he referring to when he said you err because you don't know the Scriptures, in direct response to their question?

 

 

Edited by IserveIam
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15 minutes ago, Yowm said:

I can't continue if you are changing your original post after I respond to you.

You still yet have to prove Jesus was quoting from Enoch, when he made no mention of the Scriptures or Enoch when speaking of the angels not marrying.

Most authorities believe Enoch was written in the 2nd Century...

 Which would have put it after Christ.

you are speaking of Enoch 3 and that is true it is a Jewish writing from the second century.....    it is basically Kabbalistic mystery religion that has it's roots in ancient Babel.      However the book being discussed here is 1 Enoch and was included in the Dead Sea scrolls....  and there were fragments of many different copies of the book so it was something that was widely read.    It has been  part of the Ethiopian Bible since it's forming....     one should separate the three books of Enoch when discussing them.

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5 minutes ago, Yowm said:

Why would Jesus be quoting from the Ethiopic or Slavonic books of Enoch?

Slavonic book of Enoch 2 is not what we are speaking of.....    and Enoch 1 was at least 300 years old when Jesus was here.    And maybe much older than that....   like all books they fall apart and have to be copied and handed down to newer generations.    And just for the record, there are some translation problems in 1Enoch just as there are in our Bibles, but that doesn't cause us to toss the whole book out....

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Just now, Yowm said:

Again, why would Jesus be quoting from a pseudepigrapha book in the first place? 

because it was known by most and accepted as true by the general public; was considered common knowledge....   those Jews against it were the priestly dudes and they would/could not accept it for it gave them a very clear description  of Jesus, who he was and what was to happen...…       

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1 hour ago, Yowm said:

The same 'priestly dudes' gave us the other 39 books that Jesus and the Apostles quoted from, why not Enoch?

I told you why....

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