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2 Cor 3:11-18


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Hope all is going well for you, I come to you for some guidance.
 
I have been stuck in 2 Cor 3:13-18
 
As I read in Exodus 34 about Moses coming down from the Mnt, he had to put a veil over his face because it scared the people, the radiance of being with God was too much to look upon.
When Moses talked with God, he removed the veil, when he came out to the people he would put it back on.
 
However, reading 2 Cor 3:13-18 I get stuck. Paul says that Moses didn't remove the veil "because he didn't want them to see the fading of the glory".
 
I have read several translations, commentaries, the Hebrew and Greek, and i still can't get away from the fact that Moses didn't take the veil off while the glory was fading....
 
Since i have read a bunch of bible versions, translations and commentaries and such, i understand the meaning of what the 'teaching books' are saying. I can't help but think there is more to this statement.
 
I understand the comparison Paul is making and that he is merely making a point against opposition made to his ministry, and the blindness of some... which by the way, I don't think many of the commentators really understood the depth that Paul was talking about. So my confusion doesn't come in the comparison Paul is making to the move from Law to Spirit, and I am not confused on the commentaries that compare the old covenant and the new covenant...I also get the foreshadowing of a time coming that the Jewish people will look upon the face of God and not die. I also understand the comparison to the presence of the veil and the fulfillment of the statement that the veil will be destroyed and the veils of all people. All would make great points for preaching....
 
Still
my question looms, 
Moses didn't remove the veil so the people of Israel would not see the fading of the glory. I can't find that anywhere else but in 2 Cor 3 where Paul mentions it. Is it simply something Paul adds to make the point, or is there more to meaning of the "fading of the glory" that I am missing to cross reference to.
 
What is the overarching true meaning of this verse 2 Cor 3:13?
What if anything does it imply that Moses had the forethought to leave the veil on until the fading of the Glory had finished?
Where else can I read about the veil being worn until the fading was completed?
Is there any Jewish custom or history built into or around these thoughts?
 
Thank you in advance
all comments are welcome -- I will let the Holy Spirit guide me into the truth
Rev.Steve.Dubrava@gmail.com
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