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(I posted this yesterday but there must have been a glitch.) In 32:28 God wrestles with Jacob and says he'll be known as Israel. For some reason, He says this again @ 35:10 not disguised as a wrestler. Given the Bible is the unerring word of God, why is he referred to as Jacob again @ 37:1 and not Israel?

I do not recall this happening with Abram or Saul of Tarsus with their name change.

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It's not mentioned. Maybe it was more formal the second time, like fulfilling the promise made earlier. But either way, why ask this in the context of the Bible being the unerring Word of God, as if God telling someone the same thing again, to remind them or whatever other reason, would somehow be a mark against the authenticity of the scripture?

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I saw your post yesterday and did some research.  By that, I mean I went to biblegateway.com and plugged in "Jacob Israel" to see how many times those two names are interchanged.

Whew!!!  Scores and scores of times!

And then, there were the verses I saw that had the two names used in the same sentence.

  • Numbers 24:5 - "How lovely are your tents, O Jacob, your encampments, O Israel!"
  • Psalm 14:7 - "Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion! When the Lord restores the fortunes of his people, let Jacob rejoice, let Israel be glad."

There was a lot more.  I really don't think there's any particular reason, per se, just God calling attention to the nation that came from the man.

One other thing.  Saul's name was never changed.  I didn't know that until last year.  How I skipped that in reading the book of Acts before, I don't know.  I always thought it was a changed name.  Paul's Roman name, as he was a Roman citizen, was Paul, but his Jewish name was Saul.

Acts 13:9 - "But Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked intently at him....."

He was called Saul quite a bit after his conversion, even once by the Holy Spirit.  

 

 

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On 12/5/2018 at 5:42 PM, SoldierofChrist said:

(I posted this yesterday but there must have been a glitch.) In 32:28 God wrestles with Jacob and says he'll be known as Israel. For some reason, He says this again @ 35:10 not disguised as a wrestler. Given the Bible is the unerring word of God, why is he referred to as Jacob again @ 37:1 and not Israel?

I do not recall this happening with Abram or Saul of Tarsus with their name change.

Jachob is the flesh forefather that recieved the land promise that was promised to Abraham, the land of Judeah/Praise where the rest of the family of Isreal were born in their infancy ( 12 Paitriarcal fathers)

In and through Jachob did the other forefathers recieve their prophesied land blessings (Genisis ch 48)

The next land blessings accumulated are until Joshua goes forth with The Ark of The Covenant, and the lands accumulated up to this point are the land blessings promised to Jachob.( seed of Jachob)

But when Joshua goes forth; he not only has The Ark of the Covenant ( The Eternal Covenant made in Love) But also the 10 Commandments to bring forth unto the rest of the world; and the lands accumulated by Joshua and even after Joshua, are the lands of Isreal.

 

 

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On 12/5/2018 at 5:42 PM, SoldierofChrist said:

(I posted this yesterday but there must have been a glitch.) In 32:28 God wrestles with Jacob and says he'll be known as Israel. For some reason, He says this again @ 35:10 not disguised as a wrestler. Given the Bible is the unerring word of God, why is he referred to as Jacob again @ 37:1 and not Israel?

I do not recall this happening with Abram or Saul of Tarsus with their name change.

Have you considered:

1) the use of Jacob as a name for his descendants, not the man per se?

2) the use of Jacob in the alphanumeric Bible codes?

3) the use of Jacob to describe naughty Israel and behaving Israel as believing Israel?

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1 hour ago, Billiards Ball said:

Have you considered:

1) the use of Jacob as a name for his descendants, not the man per se?

2) the use of Jacob in the alphanumeric Bible codes?

3) the use of Jacob to describe naughty Israel and behaving Israel as believing Israel?

No, I have not considered these things but those are interesting ideas. Can you tell me more?

Edited by SoldierofChrist

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God uses names, like "Abraham's descendants", so "Oh, Jacob" could be Israel or Jacob.

And since Hebrew has no numerals but uses alphabet characters instead for numbers, every number in the Bible is a letter, and every letter is a number. Intriguing number patterns in the Bible point to its authorship by a being with an intelligence far beyond our strongest computer capabilities.

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On 12/6/2018 at 5:20 PM, Jayne said:

I saw your post yesterday and did some research.  By that, I mean I went to biblegateway.com and plugged in "Jacob Israel" to see how many times those two names are interchanged.

Whew!!!  Scores and scores of times!

Thanks for doing this research. In my reading of Genesis, I am starting to get confused between the people and the place - Israel and Judah. Do you know if this has to do with the 12 tribes (12 sons of Israel) and where they settled?

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Just now, SoldierofChrist said:

Thanks for doing this research. In my reading of Genesis, I am starting to get confused between the people and the place - Israel and Judah. Do you know if this has to do with the 12 tribes (12 sons of Israel) and where they settled?

In Genesis, Judah only refers to the man.  It's not until Exodus that Judah and his brothers [long since dead as it says in the first chapter] have turned into tribes.  So from Exodus on, Judah and all his other brothers' names are tribes.

Then, in 1 Kings - the nation of Israel breaks into two nations.  Israel = 10 tribes.  Judah = 2 tribes.

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