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How does Jesus' death atone for our sins?


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14 minutes ago, Lee_ said:

Are our sins legally paid for because He died for our sins (in the sense of 1 Corinthians 15:3)?

Lee I'll dare to answer for Willa ...the answer is yes.  As she pointed out, viewing His death and shed blood  as a LEGAL transaction is perhaps the most explanatory lens to view this specific question through.

And it's all through the Old Testament  as well.   God pronounced the LEGAL penalty for sin in the  Garden and warned Adam that death  would come the  DAY he broke God's command.

The OT expands on that, and indicates that only blood can atone for sin.  I can dig up a few of those verses if you're interested, but the story is consistent and fully developed by the  time  Jesus presents Himself, and His blood as the ultimate, final answer that satisfies JUSTICE....in our behalf.

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Legally in God's eyes--not in our civil courts.

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12 hours ago, Jostler said:

Lee I'll dare to answer for Willa ...the answer is yes.  As she pointed out, viewing His death and shed blood  as a LEGAL transaction is perhaps the most explanatory lens to view this specific question through.

And it's all through the Old Testament  as well.   God pronounced the LEGAL penalty for sin in the  Garden and warned Adam that death  would come the  DAY he broke God's command.

The OT expands on that, and indicates that only blood can atone for sin.  I can dig up a few of those verses if you're interested, but the story is consistent and fully developed by the  time  Jesus presents Himself, and His blood as the ultimate, final answer that satisfies JUSTICE....in our behalf.

Our sins are legally paid for because Jesus died for our sins and shed His blood for our sins? (did I get the shed blood part right?)

Edited by plo1988
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Just now, Lee_ said:

Our sins are legally paid for because Jesus died for our sins and shed His blood for us?

I believe that is exactly correct exactly as you stated it.  God  is just.   And justice demands that a crime be paid  for, an eye  for an eye, a tooth for  a tooth, which is exactly where secular legal  systems  get the idea  the  punishment must fit the crime. 

If you can allow me  a day  I'd be happy to post some of the Scriptures that flesh  out the support for the accuracy of exactly how you  worded that...if you wish to see them.

I'm a bit pressed for time right this minute....but I'd be happy  to do it a bit later if you'd like to see more proof.

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to sin means death, but when Jesus died he became our scapegoat for death, so we do not have to die, except for a mortals death, but we will live forever because of him, whenever we sin Jesus points to the cross to his father and says, do not hold him accountable, i have already atoned for that sin.

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On 8/1/2019 at 10:16 PM, Jostler said:

Lee I'll dare to answer for Willa ...the answer is yes.  As she pointed out, viewing His death and shed blood  as a LEGAL transaction is perhaps the most explanatory lens to view this specific question through.

And it's all through the Old Testament  as well.   God pronounced the LEGAL penalty for sin in the  Garden and warned Adam that death  would come the  DAY he broke God's command.

The OT expands on that, and indicates that only blood can atone for sin.  I can dig up a few of those verses if you're interested, but the story is consistent and fully developed by the  time  Jesus presents Himself, and His blood as the ultimate, final answer that satisfies JUSTICE....in our behalf.

Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins (am I correct about that?). Would it be correct to look at it that Jesus shed His blood so we wouldn't have to shed ours? Or is it a sacrificial thing, like without the shedding of the blood of a sacrifice there is no forgiveness of sins? Also does the shedding of blood imply that whatever is shedding the blood must die?

Edited by plo1988
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32 minutes ago, Lee_ said:

Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins (am I correct about that?).

 

Indeed according to the law almost everything was purified with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness.

 

Quote

Would it be correct to look at it that Jesus shed His blood so we wouldn't have to shed ours?

 

so also, after Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many, to those who eagerly await him he will appear a second time, not to bear sin but to bring salvation.

 

Quote

Or is it a sacrificial thing, like without the shedding of blood of a sacrifice there is no forgiveness of sins?

Both are true.  His blood shed for us was a substitutionary  sacrifice....His blood for ours.

 

 

Also does the shedding of blood imply that whatever is shedding the blood must die?

Yes

 

“Surely for your lifeblood I will demand a reckoning; from the hand of every beast I will require it, and from the hand of man. From the hand of every man’s brother I will require the life of man.
 
Whoever sheds man’s blood,
By man his blood shall be shed;
For in the image of God
He made man."
 
‘For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for the soul.’
 

 

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But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.  Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.  For if when we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life.  And not only that, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.

 

Edited by Jostler
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On 7/20/2019 at 10:47 PM, Lee_ said:

Could someone really break this down for me (or maybe more than one person)?

 

Edit: Might not have used "atone for our sins" right because I guess maybe faith is also needed for our sins to be atoned for.

He is a lamb, in the old testament most of the time a lamb was used in sacrifice for paying for sins. But Jesus did that and became an "everlasting lamb".

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