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Can anyone explain what is the differance between these


john1

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9 minutes ago, john1 said:

I:  Leviticus chapter 18 verse 6

"'No one is to approach any close relative to have sexual relations. I am the LORD.

II:  Luke chapter 17

26  "Just as it was in the days of Noah, so also will it be in the days of the Son of Man. 27  People were eating, drinking, marrying and being given in marriage up to the day Noah entered the ark. Then the flood came and destroyed them all. 28  "It was the same in the days of Lot. People were eating and drinking, buying and selling, planting and building. 29  But the day Lot left Sodom, fire and sulfur rained down from heaven and destroyed them all. 30  "It will be just like this on the day the Son of Man is revealed.

I:  And God DEFINED what non-marriable close relatives were in his word. I listed that.

II:  I didn't meant they never married.  I was addressing your OP.  Sodom and Gomorrah were obliterated, in part, for their sexual deviancy.  It deviancy included fornication, being NOT married, in the form of homosexuality.  The homosexual men were not practice God-ordained marriage between a man and woman.  That didn't mean no one in the town was married.

 

I'm not sure what you point is, but people have answered you and you still are not satisfied with the answer.

What is your point?

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5 minutes ago, Jayne said:

What is your point?

Jude chapter 1 verse 7

In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire.

 

50% of pastors are divorced, 30% have affairs, 60% view pornography, church people are the same, I'm sure.

 

1 Peter chapter 4 verse 8

Above all, love each other deeply, because love covers over a multitude of sins.
 

 

Galatians chapter 5

It is for freedom that Christ has set us free. Stand firm, then, and do not let yourselves be burdened again by a yoke of slavery.

Mark my words! I, Paul, tell you that if you let yourselves be circumcised, Christ will be of no value to you at all. Again I declare to every man who lets himself be circumcised that he is obligated to obey the whole law. You who are trying to be justified by the law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace. For through the Spirit we eagerly await by faith the righteousness for which we hope. For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision has any value. The only thing that counts is faith expressing itself through love.

 

 

I think we all better hope it's about love and helping people, or we're all condemned.

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6 hours ago, john1 said:

If incest wasn't a sin yet neither was homosexuality.

Moses wasn't around until about 4 or 500 years later.

John chapter 1 verse 17

For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

Actually not true...if you go back to Adam and Eve it's pretty clear that God made one man for one woman, in Adam and Eve, and called it Eve. It's also important to note that since He only made 2 people, Adam and eves siblings, by default, had to marry each other to populate the earth making incest not only not a sin-but necessary.

Everything God does has a point. Everything. Incest was necessary in the beginning to populate the earth while homosexuality was not and would also hurt mankind. (And if you really don't believe me look at what kind of trouble Noah got in for homosexual behavior) and speaking of Noah...guess who's grandkids also married each other....

So you see there's a reason incest wasn't a Sin before the law. It's also important to note that the genetics at the time were far pure then now, so siblings could have kids with little to no risk of deadly mutations. While by Moses time, the human gnome had broken down enough that it was becoming unhealthy to do so, causing mutations in the kids.

Always important to read the entire Bible. Especially focus on where God never condemned any of Adam and eves kids (or Noah's) for incest....and where Noah got in trouble for homosexuality. ;)

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1 hour ago, The_Patriot2019 said:

by Moses time, the human gnome had broken down

I think you mean "genome", Patriot. I would be surprised to learn garden gnomes were being made in Egypt back then.

genome
[ˈdʒiːnəʊm]
 
NOUN
biology
genomes (plural noun)
  1. the haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete or microorganism, or in each cell of a multicellular organism.
    • the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.
ORIGIN
1930s: blend of gene and chromosome.
[Oxford Dictionary Online]
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1 hour ago, Michael37 said:

I think you mean "genome", Patriot. I would be surprised to learn garden gnomes were being made in Egypt back then.

genome
[ˈdʒiːnəʊm]
 
NOUN
biology
genomes (plural noun)
  1. the haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete or microorganism, or in each cell of a multicellular organism.
    • the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.
ORIGIN
1930s: blend of gene and chromosome.
[Oxford Dictionary Online]

That's actually what I typed...but my phone thinks it's smarter then I am...

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9 hours ago, Abdicate said:

 

So whereas the angels mated with woman, .....

 

Hi Abdicate,

Just want to point out that God never gave angels the male genitals & sperm to mate with women. That is NOT God`s character to give to angels a means of procreation and not let them do this. 

Now the so called first hybrid would then be the second Adam, of a new race, and of course we know that the Lord is the second Adam.

Thus angels never did and never could mate with women.

Marilyn.   

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42 minutes ago, Marilyn C said:

Hi Abdicate,

Just want to point out that God never gave angels the male genitals & sperm to mate with women. That is NOT God`s character to give to angels a means of procreation and not let them do this. 

Now the so called first hybrid would then be the second Adam, of a new race, and of course we know that the Lord is the second Adam.

Thus angels never did and never could mate with women.

Marilyn.   

Sorry, is entirely incorrect. The 200 watchers were of a higher order than other 'holy ones'.

It is quite clear from Summarian and ancient Hebrew texts that this was indeed the case. Plus Peter and Jude refer to it as well. Yeshua read the ancient texts, some of which we recovered at Qumran. Second temple Hebraic writings also talk of this extensively. The Nephilim were real. Very real.

The problem with the church is it has NO Geographical Cosmology World-view since except for several church fathers, the 'church' has disavowed much teachings about the Council Of God, Psalm 82, Deut 32, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Revelations, not to mention Job. The new testament is littered with quotes and allusions to the Heavenly Host as reflected in these and other scriptures. Only the 'modern' church finds this distasteful and preaches against it. So we have a very poor world view due to this attitude.

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36 minutes ago, Abdicate said:

Android (for me) has really change its auto correct and has removed a great deal of real words so everything is being rewritten. I'm really close to getting rid of the auto-correct feature because it's not tracking inelegant words anymore. Very sad.

I've found Androids auto correct feature to always be a thorn in my side. It's really the only complaint I have with it. With that said apples really isn't any better lol

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Greetings to all,

Great question John1 and excellent points to make about the various sex activities that God specifically recorded for us in that story of Sodom.

In response to the other post that said sister and daughter incest was OK: if you take the view that the Law of Moses applied prior to Mount Sinai, then such sex was certainly forbidden, as was male/male sex.  I won't give you the chapter and verse, even though I know them.  It is very important to read the whole law.

But, as John1 alludes to, the Mosaic Law was given more than 400 years after this event.  And the Apostle Paul has very definite things to say about the purpose of the Law.

But certainly there is some way that God communicated his preferences before the Mosaic Law.  I have very defined beliefs about this, but that is off this topic.

Why is it off topic?

Because the answer to John1's question is very important and takes a different path than the exact details of what behavior is or is not acceptable to the LORD.

The LORD, my God, has been very careful to reveal what we need to know in the scriptures.  So that we might have the opportunity to know Him.  He had his whole plan in place before the foundations of the world.  But some things we would have clearly defined He left vague.  Why?  Maybe so that we humans would have ample opportunity to show our human fraility as we fight about things we don't understand.  Maybe so that we would have to dig deep and fall at His feet in desperation.  He is so GOD and I am so not.

There is much argument about the sin of Sodom - because the LORD carefully made it a research item.  He did not specify that it was homosexuality.  Why did He not make the root sin perfectly clear?  I have my ideas, but again they are off topic.

What is on topic is that we can do an exhaustive study of the subject of Sodom and Gomorrah and come to a fairly clear definition.

Some highlights:
- The commonly quoted Ezekiel passage is not about the Sodom of Genesis destruction.  Look at the context in Ezekiel, it is completely allegory.
- The Gensis story is about submitting to the God Most High, the name the Sodom story uses refer to him in the context of the King of Salem.  This is consistent with the whole scriptures, especially the Gospel.  It is always about WHO you believe the LORD to be. And HOW you approach Him.

So the reason that Lot and Abraham were not sulpherated along with Sodom (and the other cities) is not because their sex activities were better or worse, but because they Worshipped the God Most High.  But this theory then begs the question: Why doesn't God actively destroy many civilisations?  That is less clear, but there are some perspectives from scripture that may bring an interesting view on this.

Here is blog link that reviews this topic in complete detail: https://soon.school.blog/2019/08/07/sodom-and-gomorrah/

Thanks!  Remember our high calling.
LookingForTheCity

 

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On 8/14/2019 at 4:28 PM, john1 said:

If incest wasn't a sin yet neither was homosexuality.

Moses wasn't around until about 4 or 500 years later.

John chapter 1 verse 17

For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

God's law has always been and will be through the rest of eternity! It was formalized after the delivery of His people from Egypt, but it existed for eternity. Someone else commented on each specific incident that was mentioned in the original post and did it pretty well so I'll only say that discussion about when God's law became God's law is counterproductive to ever answering questions of this type because it assumes that God's law actually has a starting point in human history.

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