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Here is something to think about, the word apostasia is a noun, and as I mentioned before it was translated as "departure" in the first 7 english translations. The verb for the word "apostasia" is strongs number g868 "aphistemi", aphistemi is used in acts 12 verse 10, and the Angel "departed" from him. my point is this that strongs defines aphistemi to remove, or actively instigate to revolt, to desist or desert, draw or fall away, the angel "departed" from him, he didnt instigate a revolt or fall away! departed is a verb in the english language, and departure is a noun in the english language, and if you look at the context and literary structure of of 2 thessalonians chapter 2 you find that paul in 2:6-8 repeats the same two events mentioned in 2:3, quoting thomas ice in his study of "The rapture in 2 thessalonians 2:3, He says; Both events are stated twice in the passage: first, "the departure" (rapture) and "the revelation of the man of sin" (verse 3), and second, the restrainer (holy spirit) "is taken out of the way" (rapture) and "the lawless one will  be revealed" (verses 7-8). If "the departure" is some form of revolt (my word) then the parallelism is broken. Also I want to point out that if we read 2 thess 2 in context we find that the thessalonians were going through tribulations as mentioned in 2 thess 1:4, so paul writes to the not to be soon shaken in mind, or troubled in spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us that the day of christ had come! 2 thess 2:2, they thought that they had missed the rapture because of tribulation, and paul comforts them by telling them not to worry about it because the departure will come "first". makes perfect sense to me. comment please! shalom

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55 minutes ago, calledoutones said:

Here is something to think about, the word apostasia is a noun, and as I mentioned before it was translated as "departure" in the first 7 english translations. The verb for the word "apostasia" is strongs number g868 "aphistemi", aphistemi is used in acts 12 verse 10, and the Angel "departed" from him. my point is this that strongs defines aphistemi to remove, or actively instigate to revolt, to desist or desert, draw or fall away, the angel "departed" from him, he didnt instigate a revolt or fall away! departed is a verb in the english language, and departure is a noun in the english language, and if you look at the context and literary structure of of 2 thessalonians chapter 2 you find that paul in 2:6-8 repeats the same two events mentioned in 2:3, quoting thomas ice in his study of "The rapture in 2 thessalonians 2:3, He says; Both events are stated twice in the passage: first, "the departure" (rapture) and "the revelation of the man of sin" (verse 3), and second, the restrainer (holy spirit) "is taken out of the way" (rapture) and "the lawless one will  be revealed" (verses 7-8). If "the departure" is some form of revolt (my word) then the parallelism is broken. Also I want to point out that if we read 2 thess 2 in context we find that the thessalonians were going through tribulations as mentioned in 2 thess 1:4, so paul writes to the not to be soon shaken in mind, or troubled in spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us that the day of christ had come! 2 thess 2:2, they thought that they had missed the rapture because of tribulation, and paul comforts them by telling them not to worry about it because the departure will come "first". makes perfect sense to me. comment please! shalom

In simplistic fashion [people tend to over complicate 2 Thess 2], Paul says that an event called the day of Christ,  shall not come UNTIL two other events takes place,  HIS coming and OUR gathering together,  unto him.   [I petition you,  by two events,  that must take place,  before a third event takes place,  i.e., the day of Christ. ]

The main thrust of the first two events?  A departure/ removal... of the ungodly,  not the righteous, must take place first.   Referring to Romans 11, we see that the Deliverer comes to Zion and removes ungodliness from Jacob,  and then shall ALL ISRAEL be saved,  calling on the name of tht Lord. 

What does the day of Christ entail?  The revealing of the man of sin! What does that involve?  It is God's wrath upon the world that rejected the gospel (word of truth) and had pleasure in unrighteousness.  Paul says that they, the rejectors of the gospel,  shall ALL be damned by the workings of deceit,  the man of sin.  

The day of Christ is when the man of sin is revealed after the parousia/ coming and gathering together begins.   This is the same gathering that Paul mentions in:

Eph 1:10 KJV That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

And in the Olivet Discourse: 

Mar 13:26 KJV And then shall they see the Son of man coming in the clouds with great power and glory.

Mar 13:27 KJVAnd THEN shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven.

When you look at the end of the 3 accounts of the O.D., you find the parable of the fig tree.  Jointly,  these 3 accounts say that "that day" of Christ's coming [Matt, Mark] and the Kingdom being near,  happens when ALL of those things have taken place.   It is then that the gathering together begins.   It's not referring to the rapture because Paul states that it is one of the two things that must take place BEFOREHAND.   The kingdom of the beast comes in a virtual simultaneous fashion as when the kingdom of God comes at the 7th trumpet.   And as Rev 13 shows,  the kingdom of the beast covers the final 42 months.  The departure/apostasia of 2 Thess 2 is not of the righteous but of the ungodly.   The wrath of God is against those who HOLD to the truth,  but walk in unrighteousness.   The man of sin is revealed for the sake of those who rejected the truth.   They are two different groups of people.   One held to the truth unrighteously, and the other rejected it altogether.  The day of Christ comes on behalf of those who rejected the truth.   There is also a third group of people.   These are those who held/ accepted the truth AND walked with righteousness.   These are the ones who will be taken in the rapture.   The gathering together,  in the day of Christ is for those who are "in heaven and in earth".

Verse list:    
Mar 13:27 KJV    And then shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven.
Eph 1:10 KJV    That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Those "in heaven" are the raptured saints.   Those "on earth" are the elect of Israel, chosen for salvation.   

Be Blessed 

The PuP 

 

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It really doesn't make a bit of sense, when you lay it out in a complete thought.  Start by the context Paul lays out.

 

II Thessalonians 2  Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.

5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?

 

Now paraphrase it in modern English with your rendering of the verse.

 

Now brothers, concerning the coming of Jesus and our being gathered to Him.  Don't be shaken or disturbed that the day of the Lord has already come.  That day will not come, unless the gathering comes first and the A/C is revealed.

 

See the problem?  The gathering will happen before the gathering?  

The other nonsensical part of this is the attempt to change what apostasia means.  If someone speaks of apostasy, or say an apostate church, do you distort the meaning to believe that this apostate church has been raptured?

Paul connects the rapture to His coming in the first verse, it is the same thing Jesus told us Himself.

God bless

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Just a note about the use of the word apostasia in the Book of 1 Maccabees: there the term unequivocally meant apostasy:

Dan. 11:32 Those who [did] wickedly against the covenant [Antiochus] corrupt[ed] with flattery; but the people knowing their God [were] strong, and acted so. 1 Macc. 2:1 In those days Mattathias…a priest of the sons of Joarib… 14 …and his [five] sons rent their clothes, put on sackcloth, and mourned greatly. 15 Then the kingʼs officers who were enforcing the apostasy [Gr. apostasia] came to Modein to make them offer sacrifice. … 19 But Mattathias answered and said in a loud voice… 22 “We will not obey the kingʼs words by turning aside from our religion to the right hand or to the left.

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