4Pillars

ONE IN UNITY is used in the case of Gen. 2:24, when the husband and wife were called ONE by God. How can the two in number, be One? This is possible only in the sense of UNITY. We can understand John 10:30 in this sense,

In John 8:53-55 we read the following exchanges between the pharisees and Jesus.... John 8 53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself? 54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is MY FATHER that honoureth me; OF WHOM YE SAY THAT HE IS YOUR GOD: 55 YET YE HAVE NOT KNOWN HIM; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying. How could that be possible when the fact is YHWH himself appeared unto their forefathers on several occasion in the Old Testament and introduced himself as their only God? Yet, Jesus rebuked them all and told otherwise, see!? Did Jesus lied to them? Of course not. The answer is very simple -- for me at least - - Jesus is YHWH himself, the Son of the unknown Invisible God Father, of whom NO man knew of his NAME at this time. Revelation 19 12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; AND HE HAD A NAME WRITTEN, THAT NO MAN KNEW, BUT HE HIMSELF. Ephesians 3:14-15 14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, 15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,..... God Bless

Scriptures document us that No man hath seen God at anytime. Instead, they saw YHWH/Jesus, the Son of God -- representing his Almighty God Father -- who is an invisible Spirit. John 8 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. 57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? 58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. EXODUS 6 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty (his invisible Father), but by my name Jehovah (YHWH) was I not known to them. God Bless Matthew 22:41-46 41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, 44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions. Revelation 19 12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; AND HE HAD A NAME WRITTEN, THAT NO MAN KNEW, BUT HE HIMSELF. Ephesians 3:14-15 14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, 15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named, .... God Bless

Scriptures document us that No man hath seen God at anytime. Instead, they saw YHWH/Jesus, the Son of God -- representing his Almighty God Father -- who is an invisible Spirit. John 8 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. 57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? 58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. EXODUS 6 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty (his invisible Father), but by my name Jehovah (YHWH) was I not known to them. God Bless

Jesus prayed to his Almighty Father of whom no man hath seen at anytime nor knew of his name at this time. Jesus is YHWH himself, the Son of the Invisible God. The God of the Old and the New Testament is the same. His name is YHWH or Jesus. YHWH is the only God Physically Formed for us to see and witness. In him dwelleth all the fullness of God bodily (physically). The Almighty God Father is an invisible Spirit --who never change -- the Spirit of Love . His Only Image is that of his Son -- YHWH or Jesus. If you've seen him, you've seen the Father. God Bless

Dear shiloh357, How do you understand the use of "ECHAD" as a

OK, let us just cut the chase, shiloh357, and go directly to the issue... Here

I would not say that Jesus is not YHVH. It simply does not follow that the Father isn't also YHVH. That's alright with me, since, it is only based on your own religious opinion. So, how many are they (Father & Son) based on your religious assumption? Thanks

I thought I made myself clear already... Again, here's the continuing question for further discussion... Does anyone here knows who the speaker of Revelation 3:12 being quoted here AFTER the resurrection of Christ? If it is the Son, then, who is the Almighty God Father and how many are they, now? Revelation 3 12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name. Also Massorite, again as I said before, while Jesus also said specifically that he will write upon us his new name (Rev. 3:12), in the continuing context of the same text does not state that it will be a new name for his God, did it? Of course not! Now, please answer my continuing questions above specifically. Who is the Father and the Son being spoken in reference to Revelation 3:12. How many are they now? Thanks

OIC, I also believe in the truine of God as One (echad) -- except it differs with the traditional trinity doctrinal view. It is my understanding however, that Jesus is YHWH himself - the Son of the invisible God -- of whom no man (except him) hath seen at any time nor his name been reveal to anyone. I also believe that I have provided enough Scripture to support my view while my opposition here only based their traditional views on their own opinion -- with no Scriptural support. Does anyone here knows who the speaker of Revelation 3:12 being quoted here AFTER the resurrection of Christ? If it is the Son, then, who is the Almighty God Father and how many are they, now? Revelation 3 12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name. God Bless

In John 8:53-58 we read the following exchanges between the pharisees and Jesus.... John 8 53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself? v54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is MY FATHER that honoureth me; OF WHOM YE SAY THAT HE IS YOUR GOD: v55 YET YE HAVE NOT KNOWN HIM; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying. Can you see the implication of what Jesus asserted to the Jewish Scribes and Pharisees who were biblical scholars and authoritative of the Scripture -- He just told them that they have NOT known his Father of whom they claimed him to be their God! How could that be possible? In fact, YHWH had appeared unto their forefathers on several occasions in the OT and told them that He is their God. The only God physically formed for them to see and witness (in the old testament) -- since, except the Son, no man, hath seen God at anytime . If so then, who was the "Lord" who appeared physically unto Abraham and unto their forefathers in the old testament? Is Jesus lying or telling the truth -- if no man hath seen God? Let us continue reading... John 8 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. v57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? v58 Jesus said unto them, verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. The answer is very simple to me at least -- Jesus told them the truth!!! He is YHWH himself -- the Son of God -- who appeared unto their forefathers. Else, there would just be too many biblical contradictions to overcome to claim otherwise -- since, no man hath seen God at anytime -- who is an invisible Spirit that never change. JMHO God Bless

Scripture says No man knows the name of the Almighty God Father -- even to this date -- until we overcometh in the end - and only then the name of the Father would be revealed. Therefore, YHWH could not have been the Almighty Father, as others would us to believe -- since we all know his name, correct? Look and read: Revelation 3 12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name. While Jesus also said that he will write upon us his new name (Rev. 3:12), the context of the same text regarding the name of his God does not state that it will be a new name, am I correct? And if YHWH is the Almighty God himself, then Jesus is only pulling our legs -- promising to reveal the name of his God -- when in fact, it's already widely known to us -- as documented in the Scripture (OT)! If so, what do we have to overcometh? Ephesians 3 14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, v15 Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,

Matthew 22:41-46 41While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, 44 The LORD said unto my Lord (David's Lord), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions. Based on my understanding of the Scripture, Jesus Christ is YHWH himself, the Son of the Invisible Almighty God Father -- whose name is not yet known to any man, at this time. JMHO I might be wrong though -- your thoughts are appreciated ... Note: Insertions are mine for clarity of my thoughts. God Bless

Dear Thaddaeus, The physical making of Adam from the MUD becoming a natural living soul (flesh and blood) is not an image and likeness of God. The Almighty God is a Spirit WITHOUT physical shape or form. In order to be created in the image and likeness of God, one must be CREATED spiritually in Christ

Dear EricH, You cannot use Scripture to support your opinions. You can only use your interpretational methods (by editing it) which don't agree with Scripture, science nor History. You can only base your allege "proper interpretation" on your own religion's views. As I have said before, those who are born again spiritually in the image and likeness of God do not suffer spiritual death. To say otherwise is lack of faith and understanding of the Scripture. Do you have any Scripture to back up your doctrinal view on this, contrary to my position? Also, as I have cited before, the Scripture says "by one man disobedience MANY (not all) were made sinners". Here let me cut-and-paste it again for you. Based strictly from the Scripture with my own insertion for your better understanding. Romans 5 v12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin (death being the wages of sin); and so death passed upon all men, for that ALL have sinned: The way I look at it, death was passed upon all men

Dear ruck1b, Once again, the situation that you are citing above is after the resurrection of Christ. Therefore, there is no longer difference between the two when they sinned or under sin. They now must come to Christ and repent. They (the Jew) now must come to Christ and repent? Why would the Jews repent if they were already perfect? Makes no sense. Where did you get such a doctrine? So after the resurrection of Christ they were considered sinners. Not only do you make the Word say what you want it, but then you make work of Christ of no effect. Once again this is what the WORD SAYS. Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. Now what would the Jew, and the Greek need to be saved from. Did the Jews (as the chosen people) begin sinning after Christ came. There is a whole Testament that proves otherwise. It would seem as if you have YOUR OWN interpretation concerning the Bible. You even stray from what Paul taught. Dear ruck1b, The record will show that I have provided you with the SPECIFIC NAMES of people that are considered PERFECT and BLAMELESS as documented in the Scripture. Obviously, you

This is what the Word says Rom 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin. The chosen people of God were made perfect. Please show me where? Dear ruck1b, Once again, the situation that you are citing above is after the resurrection of Christ. Therefore, there is no longer difference between the two when they sinned or under sin. They now must come to Christ and repent. I guess you also missed reading my previous post with regards to those chosen people who were PERPECT and BLAMELESS in the eyes of the Lord, correct? Then, allow me to cut-and-paste it for you again..... Genesis 6:9 These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and PERFECT in his generations, and Noah WALKED with God. Job1:1 There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was PERFECT and UPRIGHT, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil. Luke1:5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth. v6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in ALL the commandments and ordinances of the Lord BLAMELESS. Clearly, the Scripture document and describe them to be perfect and blameless in the eyes of the Lord and yet your church continue to assume them to be sinners? IF so, chapter and verse, please... God Bless

Dear ruck1b, Perhaps, what you continue and failed to realize, even to this date, is that... the cited passages (here) written in the Book of Romans were meant and address specifically to the Gentiles only -- not to the chosen people of God (who were made perfect). Before, the resurrection of Christ, ALL Gentiles were dead in sins, without God in this world, walking according to the power of the prince of the air. That is why the text claimed ALL (Gentiles) have sinned. And I agree. God Bless

The text does not say that Enoch was sinless and therefore untouched by death. The text simply says God took Enoch. You are filling in too many blanks here by assuming that Enoch was not subject to Spiritual death Those who are "Born Again" or created in the image and likeness of God, SPIRITUALLY, do not suffer spiritual death. To think otherwise equates to God making a mistake which is ridiculous. The text also did not say Enoch committed a sin. You are just assuming it, as well. Enoch did not suffer physical nor spiritual death. Perhaps, you missed reading this text below... Hebrews 11:5 By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him: for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God. Conclusion: The doctrinal theory of "Original Sin" is flawed and not supported by the Scripture. God Bless

Dear ruck1b, Would you rather have me describe your traditional religious assumptions to be

Dear Thaddaeus, In referrence to your comment of my post #172, perhaps, you missed reading the part of the comment stating about the

Here

Brethren: God knew Adam and Eve would sin before the foundation of the world. That's why Jesus, in his mind, was slain before the world was made. God sees the end from the beginning. God knows how to make a Perfect Heaven and fill it with Perfect People in the end