Fiosh Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 73 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,663 Content Per Day: 0.52 Reputation: 5 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/20/2005 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 31, 2007 ****bump*** Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest man Posted March 31, 2007 Share Posted March 31, 2007 ****bump*** Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mcgyver Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 2 Topic Count: 4 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 321 Content Per Day: 0.05 Reputation: 80 Days Won: 2 Joined: 11/28/2006 Status: Offline Birthday: 12/03/1957 Share Posted March 31, 2007 Jesus very definitely is, was, and always shall be God! "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" John 1:1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Idaho Christian Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Members Followers: 0 Topic Count: 2 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 34 Content Per Day: 0.01 Reputation: 1 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/24/2007 Status: Offline Birthday: 06/27/1989 Share Posted March 31, 2007 That leaves me confused, how should I address God in prayer? I've been addressing Him as Father, Lord, Christ and God. Then at the end of the prayer I say in Jesus name, amen. Jesus always addressed himself as the Son of God, should we address him as such? If He is God then would he want us to address Him as the Son of God? I'm honestly confused here I've been talking to God in prayer and Jesus in prayer like they're 2 separate holy beings. I obviously don't want to address Him wrong in prayer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sweetycakes Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 8 Topic Count: 162 Topics Per Day: 0.02 Content Count: 7,861 Content Per Day: 1.13 Reputation: 2,117 Days Won: 0 Joined: 04/21/2005 Status: Online Birthday: 03/23/1964 Share Posted March 31, 2007 Yes to both. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fiosh Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 73 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,663 Content Per Day: 0.52 Reputation: 5 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/20/2005 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 31, 2007 This part of scripture makes me wonder. Matthew 19 16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. Here Christ is being called "Good Master." Christ responds by asking why he is being called good and says there is only one who is good and that is God. Isn't Christ in essence denying that he is God? I grew up believeing Jesus was God, but these verses seem to be saying different....and out of the mouth of Christ himself. I don't want an argument, I am just trying to get this right. Look at the passage more closelyl, Katy. Jesus does not say "I am not good". He asks the man to think about what he is saying. "Why callest thou me good?" Jesus calls each of us to answer for ourselves the question He asked His Apostles, "Who do you say I am?" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fiosh Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 73 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,663 Content Per Day: 0.52 Reputation: 5 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/20/2005 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 31, 2007 That leaves me confused, how should I address God in prayer? I've been addressing Him as Father, Lord, Christ and God. Then at the end of the prayer I say in Jesus name, amen. Jesus always addressed himself as the Son of God, should we address him as such? If He is God then would he want us to address Him as the Son of God? I'm honestly confused here I've been talking to God in prayer and Jesus in prayer like they're 2 separate holy beings. I obviously don't want to address Him wrong in prayer. Depending on the circumstances, I pray to the Father, the Son or the Holy Spirit. They are distinct Persons, yet one God. It IS confusing, because it is beyond what our finite minds can comprehend. I don't think there is a "wrong" way to pray, in terms of which Person of the Trinity you address. For instance, I pray to Jesus for forgiveness because my sins nailed Him the cross. I pray to the Holy Spirit for enlightenment when I read the Word. Generally, my prayers begin, "Heavenly Father..." or "O God...." It is Scripturally sound to address Jesus as "Son of God", as long as you do not negate His Divinity. JMHO, F Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fiosh Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 73 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 3,663 Content Per Day: 0.52 Reputation: 5 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/20/2005 Status: Offline Author Share Posted March 31, 2007 This part of scripture makes me wonder. Matthew 19 16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. Here Christ is being called "Good Master." Christ responds by asking why he is being called good and says there is only one who is good and that is God. Isn't Christ in essence denying that he is God? I grew up believeing Jesus was God, but these verses seem to be saying different....and out of the mouth of Christ himself. I don't want an argument, I am just trying to get this right. Here's another one... John 8:42 Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." It sounds like Jesus is saying he came because God wanted him to.... not of himself. He is saying he came FROM God not that he is God. He is making a distinction between God and himself. The Persons of the Trinity share the same will. They are eternally and perfectly submitted, one to the other. Jesus, in His humanity chose to become obedient to the Father. In the context of that relationship (that of only Son, eternally begotten of the Father), Jesus models the perfect response of the sons of God to their Father...that of obedience. Yes, Jesus "wanted to " do the Father's will. When He emptied Himself (Phil 2:7), He laid aside His Divinity and chose to obey the Father. Jesus still maintains His Divine nature, but chooses to subject Himself to the limitations of His humanity. That's the best I can explain it, as I gotta leave soon. Maybe others here could do a better job. Peace, Fiosh Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
IslandRose Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 476 Topics Per Day: 0.06 Content Count: 5,266 Content Per Day: 0.68 Reputation: 63 Days Won: 0 Joined: 02/22/2003 Status: Offline Birthday: 03/21/1954 Share Posted March 31, 2007 I pray to the Father, through the Son(if it were not for His sacrifice, I could not approach the Throne) by the power (and with the aid) of the Holy Spirit. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Metropolitan Posted March 31, 2007 Group: Junior Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 10 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 84 Content Per Day: 0.01 Reputation: 0 Days Won: 0 Joined: 11/09/2006 Status: Offline Birthday: 01/17/1975 Share Posted March 31, 2007 (edited) This part of scripture makes me wonder. Matthew 19 16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. Here Christ is being called "Good Master." Christ responds by asking why he is being called good and says there is only one who is good and that is God. Isn't Christ in essence denying that he is God? I grew up believeing Jesus was God, but these verses seem to be saying different....and out of the mouth of Christ himself. I don't want an argument, I am just trying to get this right. Here's another one... John 8:42 Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." It sounds like Jesus is saying he came because God wanted him to.... not of himself. He is saying he came FROM God not that he is God. He is making a distinction between God and himself. The Persons of the Trinity share the same will. They are eternally and perfectly submitted, one to the other. Jesus, in His humanity chose to become obedient to the Father. In the context of that relationship (that of only Son, eternally begotten of the Father), Jesus models the perfect response of the sons of God to their Father...that of obedience. Yes, Jesus "wanted to " do the Father's will. When He emptied Himself (Phil 2:7), He laid aside His Divinity and chose to obey the Father. Jesus still maintains His Divine nature, but chooses to subject Himself to the limitations of His humanity. That's the best I can explain it, as I gotta leave soon. Maybe others here could do a better job. Peace, Fiosh A good way to start is by reading John chapters 8,9 and 10..It gives us a lot of clarity regarding our doubts Look at John Chap 10 :30 I and the Father are one Isnt this conclusive enough? verse 36 : what about the one who the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuses me of blasphemy because I said, "I am God's Son?" Jesus is indeed God! I will indeed praise Him, worship Him and bow down before Him...i have no doubt in my mind! Praise you Jesus Oh, Im so in love with Him! Edited March 31, 2007 by Metropolitan Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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