Reconstructionist89

Psalm 10:4 In the pride of his face the wicked does not seek him. All his thoughts are there is no God." All unbelievers prior to God's regenerating grace were implicitly atheistic in their thoughts, whether they explicitly professed. Whether reasoning or preaching, I do so under the great commission of Christ. I was once lost, and wish that life in the temporal or eternal on no man.

"Yet because God is himself a completely rational God and has created us in his image, there is every reason to believe that he will make argumentation effective." Dr. Cornelius Van Til

If you read my response it is in defense of Christian theism not the contrary

In all seriousness and without arrogance I assumed this apologetic board was for this type of issue. And Paul didnt hesitate to reason with the greeks in Acts 17. If this type of linking to blogs isn't allowed I will not do so. I apologize I was not aware.

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Thank you for your insights I have been busy due to the holidays but I will respond as soon as I'm able. GOD BLESS and happy 4th!

1. In response to your first point of being "caught up" according to the literal Greek translation necessitates "with absolute certainty" begs the question. No one denies believers will be caught up. The context of the text refers to the general resurrection of all believers prior to the second advent of Christ. There are many doctrines that are true without explicitly stating the word we use to define them (ex. The trinity). The difference being there is substantial evidence of comparing scripture with scripture that such a doctrine is implicitly being taught. To reduce my agreement to simply saying since the literal word Rapture isn't stated is a staw man you erroneous wove. You would need to show that the being caught up together in 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17 doesn't refer to the general revelation which could only be done by presupossing it as true and removing it from its Co text. Paul was assuring new believers of their brother's and sister's in Christ who had passed away that just as Christ rose again so would they. Such an interpretation if if ignores the following verse and we shall always be with the Lord (not x amount of years) the return with the Lord to earth and reign for a millenia where mortals and immortals coexist). 2. Believers are not appointed to wrath but the Great Tribulation you speak of cannot be extended into the future due to Jesus explicit statement "these things shall not pass away till these things take place" and literal rendering is the Greek genea (which used 5 times in Matthew always refers to the present generation). The entire context was in reference to the temple and it's destruction in Matthew 24 and prior 23. Their were believers on earth when Jesus came I judgement upon Israel and they survived. To assume believers must not be present on earth during the Tribulation in order to survive is erroneous. 3. The events in Revelation coincide with the events of the Great Tribulation proves my point. John said he was a partner during the early stages of the Tribulation that was in its beginning stages Revelation 1:9. The time was indeed near at hand for those churches to whom he wrote.

Thank you for your consideration and take all the time you need. God bless

No sir, you would be correcr. Particularly theonomic postmillinialism which has recently became known as Christian reconstructionalism. There is a grave difference in historic premillinial and dispensational eschatology. Which most of the errors I pursued to address are taught by dispensationalism.

Thanks dor for the advice I will keep that in mind. Any advice on forum protocol or policy in the future is appreciated and welcomed.

My response to the original blogger Whatthefaith.wordpress.com and his discussion with the forum member Atom is halfway down the post. It begins with Reply reconstructionist89 on 07/02/2015 at 12:14 am Your comment is awaiting moderation. 0 0 Rate This My Original Question:

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