plo1988

Isn't John 3:16 clear? If you can believe in Jesus how could you have blasphemed the Holy Spirit?

I was asking who the Lord is here. Here's another question. In this verse, are the words "The Lord" referring directly to Jesus?

Here's Jude 1:9, But even the archangel Michael, when he was disputing with the devil about the body of Moses, did not himself dare to condemn him for slander but said, "The Lord rebuke you!" Who is "The Lord" referring to in this verse?

Here's Hebrews 6:13-20, 13 For when God made a promise to Abraham, since he had no one greater by whom to swear, he swore by himself, 14 saying, “Surely I will bless you and multiply you.” 15 And thus Abraham, having patiently waited, obtained the promise. 16 For people swear by something greater than themselves, and in all their disputes an oath is final for confirmation. 17 So when God desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he guaranteed it with an oath, 18 so that by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have fled for refuge might have strong encouragement to hold fast to the hope set before us. 19 We have this as a sure and steadfast anchor of the soul, a hope that enters into the inner place behind the curtain, 20 where Jesus has gone as a forerunner on our behalf, having become a high priest forever after the order of Melchizedek. Can someone explain to me in layman's terms what's being communicated in verse 18 (specifically, "so that by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie")?