Can you show that to be true?
There are other verses but this will serve as a pointer:
NIV ...Rev.19:8 Fine linen, bright and clean, was given to her to wear."(Fine linen stands for the righteouy acts of thr saints.)
Parenthesis as above in Niv
KJV; Rev 19:8 And to her it was granted that she should be arrayed in bright linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
Are those who support the primacy of Non-KJV translations not based on the Textus Receptus also claiming that it is the riighteous acts of the saints (i.e.salvation thru Good Works) which God allows his Bride the Church to wear
or is the allegedly later and purportedly less accurate KJV trans
which imputes that" the fine linen is the righteousness of the saints" suggests that we are not the Bride of Christ thru our self-righteousness but by the power of the Holy Spirit in the Believer ...
There is a notorious verse in the OT which transposes Lucifer for God in one of the Prophets and may be considered by some to be a niggling inaccuracy but by others as a translators Blasphemy ...this is the "Star of the Morning" verse in one of the Major Proiphets
Incidentally I am not KJV-Only tho The KJV is my first English trans. Bible; as I qouted above in another reply I do read other versioms but The KJV is the trans I use as a member of the congregation; and in my personal devotions ...
God, can and has used other Versions and other devices to bring believers to Christ as He is the Author of ALL and meets people where thry are at in the pre-conversion, conversion phase ... Does that necessarily mean that He endorses those methods as his Son or Daughter matures ....
I mean, there is a verified instance of God using the Qu'ran to bring a Muslim to Saving Grace in Christ so does God endorse the Qu'ran as Scripture?