Mishael

Exodus 36:35-37:9 where, per the instructions of God, Moses has images of cherubim embroidered into the curtains of the tabernacle and statues of the same cast for the Ark of the Covenant.

Doesn't mean scripture alone is sufficient, it is profitable.

Then God commanded Moses to make graven images and Jesus was an idol worshipper for praying in a temple with images.

None of these are contradictions you can research each one and you'll find none of them to be contradictions. A contradiction in the Quran that many Muslims had trouble explaining to me: If Allah had willed to choose a son, He could have chosen what He would of that which He hath created. Be He Glorified! He is Allah, the One, the Absolute. Qur'an 39:4 Wonderful Originator of the heavens and the earth; How can He have a son when He has no consort? He created all things, and He hath full knowledge of all things Qur'an 6:101 So is Allah capable of having a son, but has no desire to? Or is he incapable of creating a son even if he wanted to without a consort?

Im done arguing since it is pointless, neither of us will agree with each other in the end.

Yet he called Mary mother of God.

Sola Scriptura was invented by him,

Not according to Martin Luther.

Either way does that make a difference?

Martin Luther's words on Mary: She is full of grace, proclaimed to be entirely without sin- something exceedingly great. For God's grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil. (Personal {"Little"} Prayer Book, 1522) ". . . she is rightly called not only the mother of the man, but also the Mother of God. . . . it is certain that Mary is the Mother of the real and true God." {Sermon on John 14. 16: Luther's Works (St. Louis, ed. Jaroslav, Pelican, Concordia. vol. 24. p. 107)}

An idol is an object to replace God with and adore as a deity all the while believing it has some special power. That is a graven image and idol. I think a statue of any of the prophets is permissible so long as it's not turned into a graven image which is to believe that it has some type of special power on its own. The early Christians venerated Mary as much as modern day Catholics and Orthodox do, I can't think of any pagan religions that used the title Theotokos in history. Elizabeth called Mary mother of my lord, the early Christians venerated her, even Martin Luther himself called Mary mother of God.

Does it really matter highly favored or highly graced so if I said Hail Mary highly favored would it make much of a difference?

Theology and understand of the faith for a start.

"All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work" (2 Tim. 3:16–17). This passage doesn’t teach formal sufficiency, which excludes a binding, authoritative role for Tradition and Church. Protestants extrapolate onto the text what isn’t there. If we look at the overall context of this passage, we can see that Paul makes reference to oral Tradition three times (cf. 2 Tim. 1:13–14; 2:2; 3:14). And to use an analogy, let’s examine a similar passage: "And his gifts were that some should be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, some pastors and teachers, to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ, until we all attain to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to mature manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ; so that we may no longer be children, tossed to and fro and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the cunning of men, by their craftiness in deceitful wiles. Rather, speaking the truth in love, we are to grow up in every way into him who is the head, into Christ" (Eph. 4:11–15). If 2 Timothy 3 proves the sole sufficiency of Scripture, then, by analogy, Ephesians 4 would likewise prove the sufficiency of pastors and teachers for the attainment of Christian perfection. In Ephesians 4, the Christian believer is equipped, built up, brought into unity and mature manhood, and even preserved from doctrinal confusion by means of the teaching function of the Church. This is a far stronger statement of the perfecting of the saints than 2 Timothy 3, yet it does not even mention Scripture. So if all non-scriptural elements are excluded in 2 Timothy, then, by analogy, Scripture would logically have to be excluded in Ephesians. It is far more reasonable to recognize that the absence of one or more elements in one passage does not mean that they are nonexistent. The Church and Scripture are both equally necessary and important for teaching.

Doesn't make much of a difference, it has been translated by various scholars as "full of grace", "graced one," "one who has been made graced," "highly graced," and "highly favored." In the last instance the translator is using the concept that to be graced by God is to find favor with God. It would appear that any translation should use the word "grace," because that is the root word.

Lol you need to learn Greek: In Luke 1:28, the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally "full of grace," but its root word is the Greek verb "to give grace" (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, meaning that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, "Hail Mary, you are kecharitomene" but rather, "Hail kecharitomene." Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.

Read above, I already gave the meaning of the original Greek word.

Sacred or apostolic tradition consists of the teachings that the apostles passed on orally through their preaching. These teachings largely (perhaps entirely) overlap with those contained in Scripture, but the mode of their transmission is different.

Can you show me where in the Bible are the words scripture alone is sufficient. Also with each sect of Protestantism interpreting the Bible as they see fit who do you think is the real abomination?

I don't know how that really makes a difference. In Luke 1:28, the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally "full of grace," but its root word is the Greek verb "to give grace" (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, meaning that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, "Hail Mary, you are kecharitomene" but rather, "Hail kecharitomene." Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.

I'm not Catholic so I'm not obliged to defend the doctrine of Co-Redemptrix. The intercession of fellow Christians—which is what the saints in heaven are—also clearly does not interfere with Christ’s unique mediatorship because in the four verses immediately preceding 1 Timothy 2:5, Paul says that Christians should interceed: "First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all men, for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life, godly and respectful in every way. This is good, and pleasing to God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth" (1 Tim. 2:1–4). Clearly, then, intercessory prayers offered by Christians on behalf of others is something "good and pleasing to God," not something infringing on Christ’s role as mediator. In any event, it is clear from Revelation 5:8 that the saints in heaven do actively intercede for us. We are explicitly told by John that the incense they offer to God are the prayers of the saints. Prayers are not physical things and cannot be physically offered to God. Thus the saints in heaven are offering our prayers to God mentally. In other words, they are interceding. Its not exactly a prayer it's asking others to pray for you.

Doesn't say scripture alone is sufficient. Nothing reaches the leveled the scriptures I'm with you on that, but without Sacred Tradition which preserves doctrines first taught orally by Jesus to the apostles and later passed down to us through the apostles' successors, the bishops, you'd then be interpreting the words of the Bible through your own understanding.

In Luke 1:28, the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally "full of grace," but its root word is the Greek verb "to give grace" (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, meaning that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, "Hail Mary, you are kecharitomene" but rather, "Hail kecharitomene." Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.

Then should I recite it in Greek?

The Bible doesn't say so: When the angel Gabriel was sent to Mary by the Father, he greeted her, "Hail, full of grace; the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). When Mary visited Elizabeth, Elizabeth exclaimed, "Of all women you are the most blessed, and blessed is the fruit of your womb" (Luke 1:41-42). So here we have the first part of the Hail Mary. St. Bernardine added the name of Jesus, clarifying who the fruit of her womb is. The second part is in response to the first, asking Mary to pray for us and addressing her as the mother of God. Of course, Elizabeth addressed her in much the same way: “Why should I be honored with a visit from the mother of my Lord?" (Luke 1:43). Since Gabriel's words were at the request of God, those words were actually God's words. So we are honored to repeat them.