Gentle-Warrior

37 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

Don't be silly!  We are talking about the truth of God making changes on  the order of things when - for example - the law was given, and how things changed again when Jesus was born. Then again when He rose from the dead. These things are the truth of God's word, and anyone honest with themselves know this. Maybe you don't like the name attached to these changes of order. That is OK. We all know these changes happened.

Thanks for bringing up Ephesians - for that passage proves a change in the order of things:

¹⁵ Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

Note that at one time THE LAW was the proper order of things; but no that law was abolished in the death of Christ.

Are there people on earth today that were born of Jewish (or Hebrew) mothers - people that CALL themselves descendants of Jacob? You know there are.  THANK GOD you are not God - for you would give them no hope whatsoever! However, God and you are different: when God makes a promise, it is forever. God made promises to them and in the end, many of them will be saved - but NOT through "the church" which they deny. You would write them off; God will not. He has already planned on how to save them.

Covenants is all over the bible. Yes, agreed: and many times a new covenant changes the order of things.  That is what many people call a dispensation.

Before Christ there was the old covenant. After Christ the new covenant came by the shedding of Christ's blood. Very simple indeed, so why complicate matters with men's inventions? 

1 hour ago, saved34 said:

You are right for the most part, warrior, but God will not break his promise to national Israel. He is still going to restore them. The believing remnant of Jews today are apart of the new humanity which is the Church, where there is neither Jew or Gentile.

Col 3:11  Here there is no Gentile or Jew, circumcised or uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave or free, but Christ is all, and is in all.

But  because he blinded the Jews for a season, God himself will restore Israel after the fullness of the Gentiles come to salvation.

 

Rom 11:25  I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers and sisters, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in,

Rom 11:26  and in this way all Israel will be saved. As it is written: "The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob.

Israel at that time is going to see our Lord’s wounds and weep and repent. 

 

Zec 13:6  And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends.

Bless the Lord Jesus Christ forever! Our God is faithful and wise!

Sorry, but I disagree. God's Promises to Israel was Jesus Christ. God the Father does nothing outside of Jesus Christ, nor did God ever make promises to Israel as a physical nation, but as a people of faith.

The old covenant is gone forever while now we live in the new and eternal covenant. God's people are those who have the faith of Abraham, not modern, physical and ungodly Israel.

Galatians 3:6–7 (NKJV)

"Just as Abraham “believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” ⁷ Therefore know that only those who are of faith are sons of Abraham."

2 minutes ago, douge said:

That Jesus was speaking at that time of the last days is not pushing it to the end times. Jesus was offering the kingdom to Israel during his earthly ministry, these were the last days and will be offered again in the future. Jesus was not telling stories but parables....he was speaking truths about the kingdom that would not be understood.

It is much more profitable to take the Bible literally than to say it means something esoteric like the kingdom is new birth or the oil is the Holy Spirit.

It is much profitable to understand how to read the bible according to its own genre than to limit the scriptures to literal meaning. To understand God's word properly, we should try to discern the intention of writer, the time in which these parables were given, who the recipients of the scriptures were and what was Jesus trying to accomplish by telling them what the kingdom of God was all about. 

There are no future promises to Israel because God's promises  to them were fulfilled in Jesus Christ (Lk 24:25-27, 44-45, Jn 5:39-40). It is my understanding that there are no promises in the NT about the land either, so it is important to note that the nation of Israel as a whole rejected Him. Once they were judged in AD 70, there is no reason to believe that a covenant Israel will be resurrected from the dead since we are already living in the eternal covenant that God promised to Abraham (Gal. 3:7-8, 16).

By the way, God's people are only those who are in Christ. He who does not have the Spirit of Christ, does not belong to Him (Ro. 8:9).

2 hours ago, NickyLouse said:

I have to be forthright with you. This is the first time anyone has said to me that the ones locked out were not the foolish virgins. I will consider what you've said. I am skeptical when I hear something for the first time, but don't hold that against me. I am diligent about discovering the truth.

I kind of question biblical explanations when these are pushed to the end times because it lacks the reality of what it means to us today, or worse, what it meant to the Jews of Jesus' day.

It is my understanding that Jesus was telling the Jews a story about 10 virgins (ten being the number of perfection) while speaking about the coming kingdom of God (the new birth). Five of them had a soft heart (the oil of their lamps means the work of the Holy Spirit in their lives), while the other half were not ready for the kingdom of God.  

This story became a reality when Peter began to preach the gospel of the kingdom to the Jews in Acts 2. Those who were ready went on with the King who has ascended to the throne of glory, while the others rejected Christ and at the end died without Him.  

12 minutes ago, NickyLouse said:

I appreciate your insights. Thank you for responding as kindly as you did.

You are special Nick. Your heart is in a good place. 

God bless, 

13 hours ago, Jostler said:

The Bible

 

Who was the audience that Jesus was telling this parable to? 

10 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

"Trinity"  -   "triune Godhead" etc.,  is not in the bible. Since these words are not in the bible, then they are false - according to your theory.  Got it. "Rapture" is not in the bible in so many letters either. So it too is false. I am beginning to understand.

Ah! Finally you are making some sense! So you don't like the WORD "Dispensation." But you like "covenant" because you find it. Got it!  But you are being silly because covenants cause a change in God's system and His relationship with humans. A "system of order" comes with a covenant.

Don't be silly. We are talking about the pseudo cult of dispensationalism, not established doctrines that has shaped our beliefs from the moment we were born again. The Godhead is found in the scriptures, especially in the NT because God has revealed Himself in three distinct persons, but dispensationalism attempts to separate what God has united in Christ, therefore it is false from the get go. A doctrine that was popularized in the 1800's and is now being taught in most churches and bible universities is not necessarily biblical as if it was biblical. It is not! 

Eph 2:11-22 destroys dispensationalism completely, Ro. 9:6 reveals that the Israel of God is a people of faith in Christ. Covenants is all over the bible. Covenants appear 284 times in the OT and 37 times in the new (NASB). How many times does dispensation appear in my translation? NONE. Only the kjv and the nkjv use the noun dispensation instead of stewardship/administration, etc. 

This is one of the reasons why believe dispensation is a deception concocted in the hearts of liars like Darby and Scofield. 

Nothing personal here. 

Many translations do not say exactly what your translation says, so why can't I have a discussion with someone else about the topic at hand? Someone asked me for help to understand what this parable means.   

On 9/1/2019 at 6:59 PM, dhchristian said:

Dispensationalism is rightly dividing the Word of God, and is As Old as the Bible. 

Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.  (2 Timothy 2:15)

If you cannot grasp a simple verse like Luke 16:16, It shows why you are averse to the Authoritative King James Version of the Bible. For the record I Do you use the Greek to add insight and definition to the plain Language of the Word of God, as Used in the Textus Receptus.

Luke 16:16 is the KEY verse of the dispensationalist Hermeneutic of studying the Word of God. If you are going to take a stand against dispensationalism, You had better be able to explain that verse.... Remember, these are Jesus Own Words. and it doesnot matter which version you use they all say the same thing. 

“The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the gospel of the kingdom of God [fn]has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it. (NASB)

“The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing their way into it. (NIV)

“The Law and the Prophets were until John; since then the good news of the kingdom of God is preached, and everyone forces his way into it. (ESV)

“The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. (NKJV)

The Law and the prophets (Dispensation A) were until John (The beginning of dispensation B) Since then The Gospel of the Kingdom is preached (Dispensation B)….

Now, this is a transition time between the OLD and The NEW Covenant, The New covenant cannot take full effect until the Death of the testator.

For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth. (Hebrews 9:16-17)

That is the New covenant, which no longer preaches the baptism of John (The Gospel of the Kingdom), but the Gospel of Grace unto salvation by the Blood Of Jesus. This then Is dispensation C.  

The Proof for this is found in acts 19, when those who had received the Baptism of John received the Baptism of the Holy Ghost.

He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. (Acts 19:2-6)

Matthew 24:14 prophesies that the Gospel of the kingdom will be preached again, shortly before the final week for Israel begins...

And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come. (Matthew 24:14)

Now we are in the transition from the church Age, to the Millennial Kingdom of God, Which could have occurred during the first advent, and John the Baptist could have been "Elijah" if they had received him as such, But instead he was Killed By Herod. And Christ was crucified, But all of this was known ahead of time by an all Knowing God who took this into account to extend grace unto the gentiles via the mystery of the church age, which we are living in now. This dispensation will come to an end, and the millennial dispensation will begin, and the time of transition is the final week for Israel.  

I am not preaching Hyper dispensationalism here, But plain old dispensationalism. If You cannot understand and explain a simple verse like Luke 16:16, You are obviously incapable of the most basic of common sense discussions on these things, or worse, You have an agenda That your pushing. You are a Newbie here, so I will extend the benefit of the doubt to you, But if you want to debate this, you need to explain Luke 16:16 and how I am interpreting it wrong, instead of just coming on here and calling me names, and Mocking me with your "superior Hermeneutic". 

IAmnot using the KJV to dictate doctrine, I am using the Word of God, The Words of Jesus Himself. It does not matter whether you translate the word dispensation as stewardship or Authority in the verses I pointed to they mean the same thing. 

Listen, some of the responses I’ve got from you wound up in my junk mail. This is part of the confusion.

i apologize for the misunderstanding. 

3 hours ago, Jostler said:

The Bible

 

The scriptures were not written to the 21st generation. As an example, the epistles were written to different churches that existed in those days, the gospels were written for a Jewish audience, the OT was written to Israel. The parables were given to Jewish believers and unbelievers, etc. 

In general, God speaks to us through His word, but we must be very careful that we don’t take God’s holy word out of its intended context and assume things He never said. 

This is why it’s very important to learn how to hear the voice of God in whatever way He chooses. We also need to learn to how He speaks to us through His word.

26 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

From dictionary:  "a system of order, government, or organization of a nation, community, etc., especially as existing at a particular time."

Before the flood it seems everyone just did what they each thought was the right thing for them to do. Perhaps Adam passed down some laws: we don't know because it was not recorded.   After the flood, there was Noah's laws. In other words, CHANGE came: a different system of order, or a different set of rules. After Moses law, there was yet another different set of rules, or yet another dispensation.

You cannot change history.

LOL. The dictionary is not the bible. Dispensationalism is not in the bible. If it isn't, then is false. Very simple. God's system of order is relationship through covenants, not dispensations. 

3 minutes ago, Jostler said:

There is such a broad misconception among believers in the West particularly, that believe all who are born again and members of the Body are also the Bride...it truly  confuses the  issue.  There are many parties included in the  "wedding party" and those are almost completely overlooked as to their Biblical significance.  Friends of the  Bridegroom, the Bride, her handmaidens....all have meaning and all are NOT the  Bride herself.  It's truly  an enlightening study, but I despair of even being able to discuss  it profitably  in this forum.  There are a lot of topics i'd love to dig into but have given up on until He  manages to make some changes.

What makes you think that the parable of the virgins have anything to do with us?  Jesus was comparing His story with the kingdom of God.

What's the kingdom of God? 

13 minutes ago, NickyLouse said:

Please help me, if you can.

Jesus told the parable of the the virgins and compared it to what the kingdom of heaven was like (Mat. 25:1). Jesus used this fictitious story to relate to His listeners what the kingdom of God was all about. Since the story is very Jewish and had a cultural flavor, it would be difficult for us to understand what Jesus was talking about unless we are a bit familiar with the wedding ceremonies of that day (2,000 years ago). 

In Jesus'story, the groom, not the bride was the most important part of the wedding feast. Reason for that is that the groom or his parents were supposed to pay a dowry to the bride's parents. Once the amount was agreed upon, and the wedding celebration became a reality, the groom and the bride were considered engaged to be married.

The engagement lasted about a year, but in Jewish custom, both the groom and the bride were already considered "married" although they were not officially married. This means that if the bride or the groom broke the engagement at any given time before the official ceremony, the law of the land would call a breaking of the marriage bows or better said,  a "divorce" would take place which would had been a great scandal to say the least. 

 The ten virgins, on the hand, served the purpose to escort the groom amid music and dancing with tambourines to the bride's father house in order to take his wife home (his home) after the ceremony and the festivities were over (the festivities lasted about seven days or so). 

So the story goes that there were ten virgins, five of them were wise while five of them were foolish. All of them had torches (or lamps) and oil to keep the lamps lit if necessary. However, the foolish virgins did not have enough oil for their lamps and apparently were not concerned about it. 

After a while, all 1o got tired and fell asleep. At midnight a shout was heard announcing the coming of the bridegroom which came in the middle of the night. The scene probably went like this: the virgins were stationed in the home of the bride's parents, waiting for the arrival of the bridegroom for the bride. He would come and take his bride to his parents' house where the marriage celebration would take place.

When the groom arrived, escorted by his attendants who carried blazing torches, the virgins would go out to greet him warmly, also carrying their lamps. Then they would all proceed together to the bridegroom's home.

Neither the wise nor the foolish virgins expected the bridegroom to come when he did. The wise virgins were not censured for this failure, but the lesson is obvious; believers need to be admonished to be expectant as well as prepared.

Can you guess the rest? If not, we'll talk again tomorrow. 

6 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

YOu can vacuum all you want: the truth is, GOD created dispensations when He gave the law and changed times. Then again when Christ came. And yet again at his resurrection. You cannot vacuum up truth - as if you make it go away. Dispensations are a part of history. You can try all you want to rewrite history, but it won't work.

LOL. Please give chapter and verse where anyone in the scriptures, whether in the old testament or the new discussed anything that resembles a so called "dispensationalism."

Take your time, 

9 minutes ago, NickyLouse said:

I appreciate your responses, but nobody has answered in a straight forward manner. Are all of the virgins saved or not?

LOL What does the parable of the ten virgins have anything to do with being saved or not? Do you understand why Jesus gave the parable to His listeners? 

7 minutes ago, iamlamad said:

You can go on thinking these things (in error) until the rapture; then you will find out how wrong you were.

Will you at least admit there was some time on earth before Moses brought the law - then again some time after Moses brought the law? Can you admit that?

I have no idea what you are talking about. 

Just now, iamlamad said:

This is certainly error. Perhaps the word  "dispensation" was not used in the Old Testament, but anyone  - if they are honest with themselves knows there was TIME before the law was given, and TIME after the law. In other words, CHANGE came with the law.

Again CHANGE came with the birth of Jesus.

Change came with the death and resurrection of Jesus.

You know these things are true.

Do you also argue against the trinity? It would be just as futile.

Error? Dispensations are a deception that was popularized by Darby and apostate Scofield. These two individual have messed up the modern church with false teachings about the end times. 

It's time for the church to wake up from so many lies and to cling to the Lord with all their hearts. As for the rest of your diatribe, who is arguing against the Holy Trinity? 

18 hours ago, iamlamad said:

Why are people so scared of the word "dispensations?" It should be obvious to all that over time God has set down different rules to follow Him.  Before the law, it would have been impossible to break the law, for it was not yet  given. After the law was given, then it was possible to break it. 

Now, for the born again, the law of love in written on our heart, so there is no need for the 900 or so points of Moses law. When it says "the law was until John," the meaning is clear: Jesus came to fulfill the Law of Moses. God cannot totally END it, because there are people He loves that think they are still under it - and the final  years WILL BE under the Law. Now we live under the law of love: We love God and we love everyone else with the God kind of love that is in us. The 900 points of Moses Law was nailed to the cross. Anyway, we all died in Christ. Dead men can't break laws.

Because dispensations is not part of God's word. It is rather a created doctrine that is hardly 400 years old. IT IS NOT BIBLICAL. Dispensationalists moved on to change the Bible from covenants to timeline in order to ignore God's covenantal relationship with believers in Christ. Dispensations removes relationship between God and man. Their only purpose was to separate God's people into two sections: Gentiles vs Jews while the reality is just the opposite because Christ's purpose was to make a body of believers regardless who they were into one people of faith. 

Ephesians 4:4–6 (ESV)

^{4 "}There is one body and one Spirit—just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call—

⁵ one Lord, one faith, one baptism,

⁶ one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all."

If I haven't said a coherent thing yet, then this conversation is over. I don't play games. 

3 minutes ago, dhchristian said:

I am convinced You have absolutely no idea what you are talking about. You have yet to reply to a simple question Re: Luke 16:16.

I already did. You cut off my answer, so stop playing games with me. 

28 minutes ago, dhchristian said:

I am not using the KJV to dictate doctrine, I am using the Word of God, The Words of Jesus Himself. It does not matter whether you translate the word dispensation as stewardship or Authority in the verses I pointed to they mean the same thing. 

The NASB, the ESV, the LEB, etc., are ENGLISH translations of the original languages. No translation is perfect. All of them contain minor errors because fallen men translated the word of God into our language. But you also must remember that the original word of God has also been translated into many, many different languages where the kjv has no part to play. 

Besides that, I wished I could convey to you that nouns like dispensations, stewardship, administrations, etc., are simply words that the apostle Paul used to convey a greater truth. It has nothing to do with the teachings of "dispensations." Biblical doctrines are far more complex than simply believing modern theologians who have abandoned the teachings of the bible for something that man invented much, much later.

Bless you brother,  

25 minutes ago, dhchristian said:

I am not KJV Only, Although I feel it is the best translation in the English out there. Once again, a mocking comment with no substance.

I feel that the best translation there is the NASB. So, you read your translation and I read mine. 

23 minutes ago, dhchristian said:

Not at all, You have still failed to explain Luke 16:16 from a non dispensationalist perspective logically, You have only said you do not understand.

I already told you that dispensationalism is not biblical. Why should I try to prove a false teaching when it is false from the get go? Dispensationalism was invented about 400 years ago by the Plymouth Brethren but popularized by apostates like Darby and Scofield. It is not biblical! 

The Bible, on the other hand, is about covenants which means we are now living under the everlasting covenant that Jesus inaugurated by the shedding of His blood (Mat.26:26-28).

As for Lk 16:16 (Bible chapter and verse) cannot be explained outside of it intended context. God never meant for us to look at isolated verses as if these would give us a clear understanding to the Scriptures. 

Our modern chapter divisions of the Bible were created by Stephen Langton and were completed around AD 1227. Wycliffe's Bible (completed in 1382 before the printing press) was the first Bible to use Langton's chapter divisions. Since this time, English Bible translations have followed the pattern, with other languages adopting the same division system.
Bible verses were created much later. The verses of the Old Testament were developed by a Jewish rabbi named Nathan in 1448. The New Testament's verses were developed in 1551 by Robert Estienne (also known by the name Stephanus). His divisions were first used in the Greek New Testament published in 1551 and were used again in a French Bible in 1553. 

Having said that, just let me say the Law and the Prophets is the old covenant age, now superseded by the kingdom of God. John the Baptist was still part of the old covenant age, so that his ministry served as the culmination of a long history of OT prophecy that looked forward to the coming of the messianic kingdom. 

Take care, 

2 hours ago, dhchristian said:

Perhaps, those "modern scholarly translations" should not have based their translations off of heretical Alexandrian texts in the first place. For 300 Years the English Language had the KJV and the church did just fine, Since 1904 the modern translations have been using the corruptions of Hort and Wescott, and the results show in the churches of today. Just Sayin'. 

 

Just going by what Jesus said here, His words are not open to interpretation and my view is strictly literal. Here I will requote it for you just so that it will sink in. The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. Luke 16:16

Matthew 11:13 confirms this, and adds even more to this... 13For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. 14 And if ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.

That is mighty Arrogant of a thing to say... Even the Jehovah's witnesses that come to my door, (And usually never return) allow me to use my KJV, and you exclude me from Using it? I wonder why? Are You scared of the Holy Bible? 

No, Sorry your appeal to intellectual superiority will not work with me, as I am not taught in some seminary (Or cemetary as some have called it), But I have been taught by the Holy Ghost without the teachings and interpretation of men, scholarly or otherwise. Jesus Taught about dispensations, as did Paul the Apostle, and that makes me inclined to say they were right.

God Bless. 

Oh no a KJO cult follower. 

1 hour ago, dhchristian said:

Perhaps, those "modern scholarly translations" should not have based their translations off of heretical Alexandrian texts in the first place. For 300 Years the English Language had the KJV and the church did just fine, Since 1904 the modern translations have been using the corruptions of Hort and Wescott, and the results show in the churches of today. Just Sayin'. 

 

Just going by what Jesus said here, His words are not open to interpretation and my view is strictly literal. Here I will requote it for you just so that it will sink in. The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. Luke 16:16

Matthew 11:13 confirms this, and adds even more to this... 13For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. 14 And if ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.

That is mighty Arrogant of a thing to say... Even the Jehovah's witnesses that come to my door, (And usually never return) allow me to use my KJV, and you exclude me from Using it? I wonder why? Are You scared of the Holy Bible? 

No, Sorry your appeal to intellectual superiority will not work with me, as I am not taught in some seminary (Or cemetary as some have called it), But I have been taught by the Holy Ghost without the teachings and interpretation of men, scholarly or otherwise. Jesus Taught about dispensations, as did Paul the Apostle, and that makes me inclined to say they were right.

God Bless. 

You have misunderstood me. The kjv cannot be used to dictate doctrine. It is rather arrogant from your part to assume that one translation in English can dictate what the Bible teaches. May I remind you that the original language of the NT is Koine Greek, not old English?   

However, I apologize if I get confused when I'm forced to read an archaic translation that is 412 years old. We don't live in the Middle Ages, nor do I want to use a dictionary to understand my English Bible. This is why it is important that you consider that not everyone reads the kjv. 

As for Lk 16:16, I really don't understand what point you are trying to make. The original discussion was about whether dispensationalism is taught in the Bible or not. Besides that, you have failed considering that this teaching is only 200 year old, NOT 2,000 years old.

So, since dispensationalism is not really biblical, everything else that this doctrine teaches fall apart at the seams. 

Take care, 

18 minutes ago, dhchristian said:

You should have read my post completely.

See Luke 16:16 above this marked the end of the dispensation of the Law and the prophets. Read Eph 1:10, as the Word dispensation is used there.

Other verses with the word dispensation in them.

For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me. (1 Cor 9:17)

That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him: Eph 1:10

If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: Eph 3:2

Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God; (Col 1:25)

 Luke 16:16 states: The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.

So here we see one dispensation ending, and the next beginning, which is the Gospel of the Kingdom. Since the new testament to take effect required the death of the testator....

 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth. (heb. 9:16-17)

So we have this transition period during the ministry of John the Baptist and Jesus. This is why those people who only received the baptism of John had to be Baptized in the Holy Ghost in Acts 19. Israel' unbelief led to the dispensation of the Gentiles...For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. (Romans 11:25) 

During this dispensation the Gospel of Grace is preached as opposed to the Gospel of the Kingdom.But none of these things move me, neither count I my life dear unto myself, so that I might finish my course with joy, and the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the gospel of the grace of God. (Acts 20:24) 

As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes. (Romans 11:28)

The Gospel of The Kingdom will be preached once more before the second coming of Jesus, as Per Matthew 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come. As the Dispensation of the gentiles reaches its fulness (See Eph.  1:10)  And Israel will be restored and enter the kingdom heaven, The Millennial reign of Christ, the Messiah (matt. 23:39, Act 1;6-7)

Most Pre-tribbers say the fulness of the gentiles comes in before the final week, But many of them Overlook the time of transition between the time of the gentiles and the Return of Christ, when the Gospel of the Kingdom is preached once again. The fulness of the gentiles does come before the final week, but the transition time carries this to the Mid week point of this final week.

I read your whole post, but I quoted only part of it because your write way too much, making it impossible for me to cover all points. 

Point 1, you can't rely on a NOUN to establish a doctrine. 99% of modern scholarly translations use the noun ADMINISTRATION or STEWARDSHIP.

Ephesians 1:10 (NASB95) 

"With a view to an administration suitable to the fullness of the times, that is, the summing up of all things in Christ, things in the heavens and things on the earth. In Him

Point 2, Luke 16:16 is not the mark of the "dispensation of law". That's entirely your personal opinion that is based on an assumption from your part. 

Point 3, Ephesians 3:2 (NASB95)

^2"if indeed you have heard of the stewardship of God’s grace which was given to me for you."

Stewardship simply means —Human responsibility to manage resources that God has placed in one’s care. 

Greek:

30.68 οἰκονομίαb, ας f: a plan which involves a set of arrangements (referring in the NT to God’s plan for bringing salvation to mankind within the course of history)—‘purpose, scheme, plan, arrangement.’ αἵτινες ἐκζητήσεις παρέχουσιν μᾶλλον ἢ οἰκονομίαν θεοῦ τὴν ἐν πίστει ‘these promote controversies rather than God’s plan, which is by faith’ 1 Tm 1:4; φωτίσαι πάντας τίς ἡ οἰκονομία τοῦ μυστηρίου ‘to make all people see what his secret plan is’ Eph 3:9.

Louw, J.P. & Nida, E.A., 1996. Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: based on semantic domains, 1, pp.357–358.

I don't use the KJV therefore you cannot use a particular translation to make a valid point. You should rely on the meaning of the word instead of creating an entire doctrine based on one noun!