aaronjm Posted December 1, 2005 Group: Advanced Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 26 Topics Per Day: 0.00 Content Count: 225 Content Per Day: 0.03 Reputation: 0 Days Won: 0 Joined: 11/24/2005 Status: Offline Birthday: 12/07/1980 Share Posted December 1, 2005 In this verse John is speaking about G-d forgiving sins that dont lead to death, then at the end of that verse he says; "There is a sin that leads to death." What is he referring to when he says that?? And since I am in this book, I have a question about 1John5:18 "We know that anyone born of G-d does not continue to sin:" Is he saying that we no longer purposefully choose to sin?? Thank you for any help you can give me with this. Aaron Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest douggarb Posted December 2, 2005 Share Posted December 2, 2005 In this verse John is speaking about G-d forgiving sins that dont lead to death, then at the end of that verse he says; "There is a sin that leads to death." What is he referring to when he says that?? And since I am in this book, I have a question about 1John5:18 "We know that anyone born of G-d does not continue to sin:" Is he saying that we no longer purposefully choose to sin?? Thank you for any help you can give me with this. Aaron to the first part of your question i think so. to the second part of your question, maybe. i started a discusion called "perfection"an i go lambasted. look it up and see what they said. it might be in doctornal questions though Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts