Another take on "Free Will"

[Thaddaeus]

BurnForChrist,

Ephesians 1:4 "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love."

This text has no predestination of believers even in site. What was predestined is our destiny, that we would be blameless, holy, to be conformed to His Image as Romans depicts it. There is nothing here of God choosing believers. We are being chosen IN Christ, IN HIM. One first needs to be IN Christ to be of that Chosen race, to be conformed to His Image.

Thus it is not our response to Him, but the nature of our salvation.

There is no where in all of scripture that says you must be in Christ in order to be chosen. But rather choosen in Christ and appointed by GOD to believe, as the scriptures say:

Which is a contradiction just as you state it. It does not say chosen to be In Christ, but chosen In Christ. The rest of scripture clearly indicates that man is the one who chooses whether he will be IN Christ or reject Him. You can go right back to Genesis, the story of creation and the fall. The fall itself rejects you whole notion. Which is why scripture rejects the notion from beginning to end.

Acts 13:48 "Now when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."

See my earlier explanation of this verse. Again, it does not speak about predestination of believers.

Ephesians 1:5-6 "Having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved."

Lets look at it in reverse order. Accepted in the Beloved, is the Work of Christ on the Cross whereby He reconciled, redeemed, justified all of mankind to God. The word, righteous, means to be made acceptable. That is what Christ did not the Cross overcoming the fall. Because we have been made acceptable, we by faith can accept that universal call of God to repentance, and those appointed to believe will believe, and once we believe we are IN Christ and it is those that have been predestined to be adopted as sons, and heirs of the promise.

So according to the good pleasure of His Will, he predestined us to be adopted as sons by Jesus Christ to himself. He choose us in his son, before the Foundation of the World

Again, He chose us IN HIS SON, to be adopted. We move from children, having been made acceptable. to adopted, and heirs, when we believe. We then are the elect of whom God has a special plan.

. Let me ask you a question, what did Jesus mean when he said "You did not choose me but I choose you" (John 15:16)

Just what it says. He is speaking to the Disciples. Has absolutely nothing to do with believing, or predestination of anyone. God chose Isreal, God chose Abraham, God chose Jacob over Esau. God does a lot of choosing, but no place in scripture does God ever choose to make someone believe. It is against the whole purpose of our being created, to be freely in union. Again, go back to the fall.

You do a great job of proof-texting. Most of the quoted verses in the previous post to this have nothing to do with believers either. They for the most part all deal with Christ's Work on the Cross which man has nothing to do with. It is dealing with the saving of mankind from the fall.

I would agree that GOD choose me, not based on anything I did, any good or evil, but Uncondtionally, where do I get this from?

Scripture, but He chose all of mankind which is the same context you draw this verse, Rom 11:32. God permitted man to suffer death, just so God could show His great mercy and the fact that Christ would be that solution over death. He defeated Satan who has the power over death. Christ saved every single human being from death. He lost none. John 6:39, which is also summed up in Rom 5:18-19 and several more, if you are interested. All men will be raised through the Work of Christ on the Cross. God desires that all men be saved through the knowledge of Him, but to permit any man to do that, man needed life. A pile of dust cannot be judged, or man cannot be judged twice. Your theology needs an overhaul when it comes to understanding the Gospel.

You are confused over what Christ did for mankind as the Second Adam, and man's response to that Great Gift of Mercy. It has been the understanding of Christianity, of the Bible, for a very long time. One man is not going to change that Gospel. Several have tried, but all have failed.

[BurnForChrist]

BurnForChrist,

Ephesians 1:4 "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love."

This text has no predestination of believers even in site. What was predestined is our destiny, that we would be blameless, holy, to be conformed to His Image as Romans depicts it. There is nothing here of God choosing believers. We are being chosen IN Christ, IN HIM. One first needs to be IN Christ to be of that Chosen race, to be conformed to His Image.Thus it is not our response to Him, but the nature of our salvation.

Edited September 22, 2007 by BurnForChrist

[BurnForChrist]

Is there any way to delete repeated post?

Edited September 22, 2007 by BurnForChrist

[BurnForChrist]

My post repeated for some reason?

Edited September 22, 2007 by BurnForChrist

[Thaddaeus]

BurnForChrist,

If you mean what you say in the quote below, I do apologize for misunderstanding you. What you stated in the post which prompted my response is not at all the same as it is here, but that is possibly why I misunderstood you.

When did I ever say it had to do with predestination? In this text we see that GOD has chosen US, believers, thats who Paul is writing to in the first place. He choose the believers, if it were mankind then he would say "Just as He chosen man/all in Him..." You need to read the context and background of the text. Do you know what it means to be chosen in Christ in the first place? And its because we are Chosen in Christ that he predestines us to be conformed to the image of His Son (Romans 8:28-30)

The above is exactly what it means.

And this is a terrifying idea that now we are dead in sins (Ephesians 2:1) and radically depraved in our nature. See its when you truly see the depravity of man that you realize why you needed GOD in order to believe, because it was GOD working by His soverign grace enabling me to believe.

The point of Christ's Work is that no man is dead any longer in sins. Christ freed mankind from the bondage to death and thus sin. Thus Christ enabled all men to know God and have an eternal consequence to that belief.

Oh really? Christ reconciled the world, redeem and justified mankind? So there isn't going to be hell?

Yes, He actually redeemed the world. Hell would not even exist, neither would heaven, unless Christ redeemed mankind from the fall. It is what redemption is all about. Christ overcoming the fall, the condemnation of man through Adam. That condemnation of Adam was death. Gen 3:19. Could you explain to me just how a pile of dust can even stand in judgment, let alone be sentenced to hell. Unless Christ is raised, all is in vain. The whole redemption plan, is linked to the resurrection. I Cor 15:14-19. That Christ reconciled the world is Col 1:15-20 and II Cor 5:18-19 as well as a few others.

Apply your logic to scripture and you will hopefully see that what your saying, your theologically is inconsistent with scripture. You have to change the meaning of your words and twist scripture to fit your own views. He reconciles the believers (2 Cor. 5:18), he redeems his elect (Galatians 3:13), and justifies the believer (Acts 13:39; Romans 3:24; 5:1).

As I have already showed, II Cor 5:18 is speaking of mankind. Because mankind is reconciled, we as believers become co-workers with God in reconciling others. That is also the great commission.

Gal 3:13 is also mankind. The curse of the law is death. Man, Adam was sentenced to death for his sin. That is the separation of body and soul, the end of man as he was created to be, an eternal creature. Christ overcame death. He is the victor over death, He is the Second Adam. He is not a partial victor in overcoming death ONLY for believers. Your missing the whole purpose of Christ's work on the Cross.

Acts 13:39 on this you are correct. It is by faith that we are justified to God. We could not save ourselves from the fall, from death and sin, and ONLY Christ could do that for man. All we need do is believe Him, that He is who He says He is, and accept Him. When we do we are justified. Different justification that what Christ did for mankind. Notice that this is initiated by man, by faith, by beleif. Man had nothing to do with the Work of Christ on the Cross.

Rom 3:24 is just the opposite of faith. It is God who is doing the justifing with no imput from man. This is the redemption, the reconcilement, the justification of man to God through Christ. Rom 5:18-19 also spells it out quite clearly.

Then notice that the next one you selected Rom 5:1 is speaking of the faith that justifies us, as believers. It is the definition of a believer. Two completely different justifications. The latter is impossible without the former.

Okay lets go over this again. Before the foundations of the world GOD choose us in HIM (Ephesians 1:4), he isn't talking about the world, he is talking about the believers, we are chosen and appointed to believe, as the gentiles are appointed to believe.

Two completely different things. In order to even have before the foundations of the world that we, those that believe, could believe and could have an eternal consequence, Christ of necessity must save mankind from death, from the fall. All the faith in the world will never save you unless Christ first overcame the judgement against mankind, namely death. All men were appointed to believe, that is why Christ saved mankind to enable all men to have that capacity. He gave to each human being the right, the privilege to decide for himself whether he will exist in eternity with Christ or apart from Him. Unless Christ thus redeemed mankind we are all still under the condemnation of Adam. thus just a pile of dust upon our biological death.Gen 3:19.

It has everything to do with believing. The disciples, as we are told at the end of John 6, that they were chosen thats why they stayed.

nowhere does it say that. It says they believed. That is why they stayed. Jesus even asked them if they will leave also. A very dumb question if Christ had chosen them to believe. We are not chosen to believe but chosen because we believe. The fact they were chosen was because they believed. This is shown in every example in scripture. Noah was chosen because God found favor in Him, namely faith. Same with Abraham. Same with Jacob. Same with the disciples and we even have a inside look at God's foreknowledge at work with Judas. He was chosen only because God already knew that in the future he would leave, would not believe in the end.

I may need to take my apology back. you seem to have hung up on the false teaching that God choses us to believe rather than choses us because we believe.

And thats the thing we cant be freely in union with him because we are depraved and evil. Beloved what you need to realize is our nature, and how evil we truly are, how can a dead man make a choice? How can someone who is naturally evil come to a holy and infinitely righteous GOD?

But the point is that WE ARE NO LONGER DEAD. We are all alive. We have been made alive through Christ. Here is the equation. As in Adam we all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. We can beleive ONLY because we have been made alive. Rom 5:18-19, I Cor 15:20-22. God had mercy upon mankind, all men. Rom 11:32.

My friend you need to go back and re-read those text because apparently your blind, they have to do with the believer, and they glorify the redeemer. what I want you to realize is that its all about GOD, not about man. Again mankind is fallen, those who are lost are in bondage to sin, dead in sins, love to sin, and hate GOD.

I suggest that you do so since you are the one who has completely missed the Work of Christ. You are correct that all those verses to esteem and give glory to God for what He did through Christ who redeemed us, namely mankind from the fall. It is all of God and nothing is of man when it comes to our salvation from the fall. How can a dead being, a mere mortal give life to himself. How can a sinner propitiate his own sins, let alone the sins of the world.

No man is lost in bondage to sin and death. At least I learned from scripture that Christ overcame death. If he did, then no man is lost. John 6:39. It says He lost none. If mathematical equations mean anything, how can this be anything but total complete salvation of mankind. As in Adam we all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. This corresponds with Rom 11:32, Rom 5:18-19, I Cor 15:20-22, also that Christ redeemed the world, Col 1:15-20. II Cor 5:14-19.

Show me in scripture where GOD choose all of mankind? Again you take that verse out of context every time. He isn't talking about mankind but GODs purpose of going to the gentiles that they [israel] might be provoked to jealously and come to Him.

this whole discourse from chapter 9-11 in Romans. It specifically is explaining that Christ would come to save all. Paul was speaking against the Pharisees who thought that just because they were blood Isrealites of Abraham that they were saved. Paul goes to great lengths to show that is it not of blood but of faith. That God would have mercy upon all so all could be able to believe. He consigned all to disobedience, namely death, just so He could manifest His power and glory. It is right is context. It is about mankind.

Thats not what what John 6:39 says, he isn't talking about all of mankind, only his sheep. To say that he is talking about all of mankind would imply that none are going to hell, which is universalism. He won't lose those whom the father has given him, which is his sheep:

Quite the contrary. Vs 39 is mankind, but believers are in vs 40, the difference between the two is those that believe. The difference between the sheep and His Sheep. As I explained before and as John 5:28-29 clearly attest, all mankind shall rise on that last day. All will stand in judgement, some will recieve life with Christ, others will recieve eternal condemnation or spiritual death. Thus these man, all men will rise from the dead. Just how is that accomplished? By Christ, He assumed our fallen human natures, mortal in other words, and raised them all to life, immortality. All men will live eternally. You will find no text that refutes this fact in scripture. Christ IS THE COMPLETE VICTOR OVER DEATH.

John 17:2 "As You have given Him authority over all flesh, that He should give eternal life to as many as You have given Him."

In this text apply what your saying, and you will see that your theology is inconsistent. Then apply with what scripture says about scripture. That he gives eternal life to those whom the father has given Him.

But where in scripture does it ever say that God only gave some to Him. It says He lost none. It says He had mercy upon all. It says His death brought justification of life to all. Christ upon the Cross draws all men to himself. No place do I ever see a limitation upon the Work of Christ on the Cross. Maybe you could find some? If He has all authorty over all flesh, and God desires that all men be saved, then there is a huge hole in your theology regarding God keeping His word, and just saying things and not meaning them.

[MeCajunboy]

Thanks for your responses and Bible references and perspectives.

So, as I think about the word "appointed" used in Acts 13:48, it raises the question: Can something or someone be appointed by someone to something, but the appointed thing doesn't actually occur? Can this happen if God is the one doing the appointing? And now I see that Acts 13:48 doesn't name the appointer, just points out the the appointees.

RE Act 13:48 (KJV) And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained (other versions 'appointed') to eternal life believed.

Strong's concordance gives these definitions for the Greek word 'tasso'

1) to put in order, to station

a) to place in a certain order, to arrange, to assign a place, to appoint

1) to assign (appoint) a thing to one

b) to appoint, ordain, order

1) to appoint on one's own responsibility or authority

2) to appoint mutually, i.e. agree upon

These are other references (KJV) where the Greek word tasso is used.

Mat 28:16 Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.

Luk 7:8 For I also am a man set under authority, having under me soldiers, and I say unto one, Go, and he goeth; and to another, Come, and he cometh; and to my servant, Do this, and he doeth [it].

Act 15:2 When therefore Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and disputation with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas, and certain other of them, should go up to Jerusalem unto the apostles and elders about this question.

Act 22:10 And I said, What shall I do, Lord? And the Lord said unto me, Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do.

Rom 13:1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God.

1Cr 16:15 I beseech you, brethren, (ye know the house of Stephanas, that it is the firstfruits of Achaia, and [that] they have addicted themselves to the ministry of the saints,)

Act 28:23 And when they had appointed him (Paul) a day, there came many to him into [his] lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and [out of] the prophets, from morning till evening.

In all of these cases, it appears that whatever was appointed was carried out. But in Acts 28:23, if Paul had been sick or otherwise deterred, the day had already been appointed, but could've been cancelled or delayed. Appointments can sometimes be made without being carried out.

Eph. 1:5 says Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will...

The Greek for the KJV ''predestinated" is pro-orizo.

pro means 'pre-'

orizo means (according to Strong's)

1) to define

a) to mark out the boundaries or limits (of any place or thing)

b) to determine, appoint

1) that which has been determined, acc. to appointment, decree

2) to ordain, determine, appoint

Is the meaning that it's a rigid appointment, or is it that there are boundaries set up? How rigid is the choosing, the predestinating, the appointing? And of course it raises more questions of the appointer and whatever the appointment is. But it just gets me to wondering.

Cajunboy noted::::Hi Kin, you might want to save this as a new "Topic" for another time, as it changes the text of where this topic "Free Will" is headed or intended.

Blessings

[kjn]

Thanks for your responses and Bible references and perspectives.

So, as I think about the word "appointed" used in Acts 13:48, it raises the question: Can something or someone be appointed by someone to something, but the appointed thing doesn't actually occur? Can this happen if God is the one doing the appointing? And now I see that Acts 13:48 doesn't name the appointer, just points out the the appointees.

RE Act 13:48 (KJV) And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained (other versions 'appointed') to eternal life believed.

Strong's concordance gives these definitions for the Greek word 'tasso'

1) to put in order, to station

a) to place in a certain order, to arrange, to assign a place, to appoint

1) to assign (appoint) a thing to one

b) to appoint, ordain, order

1) to appoint on one's own responsibility or authority

2) to appoint mutually, i.e. agree upon

These are other references (KJV) where the Greek word tasso is used.

Mat 28:16 Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.

Luk 7:8 For I also am a man set under authority, having under me soldiers, and I say unto one, Go, and he goeth; and to another, Come, and he cometh; and to my servant, Do this, and he doeth [it].

Act 15:2 When therefore Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and disputation with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas, and certain other of them, should go up to Jerusalem unto the apostles and elders about this question.

Act 22:10 And I said, What shall I do, Lord? And the Lord said unto me, Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do.

Rom 13:1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God.

1Cr 16:15 I beseech you, brethren, (ye know the house of Stephanas, that it is the firstfruits of Achaia, and [that] they have addicted themselves to the ministry of the saints,)

Act 28:23 And when they had appointed him (Paul) a day, there came many to him into [his] lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and [out of] the prophets, from morning till evening.

In all of these cases, it appears that whatever was appointed was carried out. But in Acts 28:23, if Paul had been sick or otherwise deterred, the day had already been appointed, but could've been cancelled or delayed. Appointments can sometimes be made without being carried out.

Eph. 1:5 says Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will...

The Greek for the KJV ''predestinated" is pro-orizo.

pro means 'pre-'

orizo means (according to Strong's)

1) to define

a) to mark out the boundaries or limits (of any place or thing)

b) to determine, appoint

1) that which has been determined, acc. to appointment, decree

2) to ordain, determine, appoint

Is the meaning that it's a rigid appointment, or is it that there are boundaries set up? How rigid is the choosing, the predestinating, the appointing? And of course it raises more questions of the appointer and whatever the appointment is. But it just gets me to wondering.

Cajunboy noted::::Hi Kin, you might want to save this as a new "Topic" for another time, as it changes the text of where this topic "Free Will" is headed or intended.

Blessings

sorry

[None]

(sorry, i haven't read through all the posts yet so not sure if this was mentioned)

It was recently brought to my attention here on the WB that there is no specific script/verse that addresses the term "Free Will" from God. And after initially searching index, I decided to merely thumb thru a few pages. Also, with the aid of a wonderful new friend from Australia, and a few of his well-versed friends we were able to come up with approx. 8 scripts/versus on man's will . However, I have to admit I have thusfar found NO versus that give detailed information on the term "Free Will." Now, many scriptures DO speak of "Man's will" from God and Man's ability to decide or choose to do or not to do wrong. But we also have to remember that the NOW English translations of words must be quite different than that of early times....(ex. the term homosexual was not used as it is more an English and very recent term in terms of the History of English. However, the terms impure sex, unclean sex and fornication ARE valid substitutes for the term homosexual that I feel is very hard to dispute. And isn't it extremely ironical that one of the "now" terms for the dreaded disease of HIV/AIDS is specifically due to "unclean sex," and "impure sex" or through "fornication." the Key word here folks is "Uncleanliness." Whether it be with a dirty drug needle or a sex act. HUM?

Just searching for further input on that age old term "Free Will" that seem to have evaded the Good Book?

Thanks in advance

This is in reference to your (ex. the term homosexuality...) you forgot Paul's definition of this in Romans:

27)And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another;

men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

(KJV)

27)In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

(NIV)

Even when the "terminology" is absent, the message of God can still be seen.

Free will is just the ability to choose; right, wrong, left, right, up, down etc.

I believe being in God's will, yet still having "free will", is choosing right over wrong to the best of our abilities and trusting God to lead us while still being allowed to choose, for example, a white car over a green one.

[MeCajunboy]

(sorry, i haven't read through all the posts yet so not sure if this was mentioned)

It was recently brought to my attention here on the WB that there is no specific script/verse that addresses the term "Free Will" from God. And after initially searching index, I decided to merely thumb thru a few pages. Also, with the aid of a wonderful new friend from Australia, and a few of his well-versed friends we were able to come up with approx. 8 scripts/versus on man's will . However, I have to admit I have thusfar found NO versus that give detailed information on the term "Free Will." Now, many scriptures DO speak of "Man's will" from God and Man's ability to decide or choose to do or not to do wrong. But we also have to remember that the NOW English translations of words must be quite different than that of early times....(ex. the term homosexual was not used as it is more an English and very recent term in terms of the History of English. However, the terms impure sex, unclean sex and fornication ARE valid substitutes for the term homosexual that I feel is very hard to dispute. And isn't it extremely ironical that one of the "now" terms for the dreaded disease of HIV/AIDS is specifically due to "unclean sex," and "impure sex" or through "fornication." the Key word here folks is "Uncleanliness." Whether it be with a dirty drug needle or a sex act. HUM?

Just searching for further input on that age old term "Free Will" that seem to have evaded the Good Book?

Thanks in advance

This is in reference to your (ex. the term homosexuality...) you forgot Paul's definition of this in Romans:

27)And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another;

men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

(KJV)

27)In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

(NIV)

Even when the "terminology" is absent, the message of God can still be seen.

Free will is just the ability to choose; right, wrong, left, right, up, down etc.

I believe being in God's will, yet still having "free will", is choosing right over wrong to the best of our abilities and trusting God to lead us while still being allowed to choose, for example, a white car over a green one.

Cajun Noted::: I'm in total agreement with you None. I think the initial statement I made note to was when someone informed me that, "there is no exact word useage to the term "Free Will" when being addressed by God. I have researched it at great lengths and to my surprise.....it is nowhere to be found. Now, you will see all the other word useages as "Will" or "Will of God" Or "Man's Will" as well as many others....You would just think that as much as the term "Free Will" given to us from God would have been found somewhere between the text of God's Word.

Also, I just guessing, but I don't think God had "choosing a white car over a green one," in terms of the "Will of God" and our ability to choose right from wrong.....lololo only kidding....lolol

[None]

(sorry, i haven't read through all the posts yet so not sure if this was mentioned)

It was recently brought to my attention here on the WB that there is no specific script/verse that addresses the term "Free Will" from God. And after initially searching index, I decided to merely thumb thru a few pages. Also, with the aid of a wonderful new friend from Australia, and a few of his well-versed friends we were able to come up with approx. 8 scripts/versus on man's will . However, I have to admit I have thusfar found NO versus that give detailed information on the term "Free Will." Now, many scriptures DO speak of "Man's will" from God and Man's ability to decide or choose to do or not to do wrong. But we also have to remember that the NOW English translations of words must be quite different than that of early times....(ex. the term homosexual was not used as it is more an English and very recent term in terms of the History of English. However, the terms impure sex, unclean sex and fornication ARE valid substitutes for the term homosexual that I feel is very hard to dispute. And isn't it extremely ironical that one of the "now" terms for the dreaded disease of HIV/AIDS is specifically due to "unclean sex," and "impure sex" or through "fornication." the Key word here folks is "Uncleanliness." Whether it be with a dirty drug needle or a sex act. HUM?

Just searching for further input on that age old term "Free Will" that seem to have evaded the Good Book?

Thanks in advance

This is in reference to your (ex. the term homosexuality...) you forgot Paul's definition of this in Romans:

27)And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another;

men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

(KJV)

27)In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

(NIV)

Even when the "terminology" is absent, the message of God can still be seen.

Free will is just the ability to choose; right, wrong, left, right, up, down etc.

I believe being in God's will, yet still having "free will", is choosing right over wrong to the best of our abilities and trusting God to lead us while still being allowed to choose, for example, a white car over a green one.

Cajun Noted::: I'm in total agreement with you None. I think the initial statement I made note to was when someone informed me that, "there is no exact word useage to the term "Free Will" when being addressed by God. I have researched it at great lengths and to my surprise.....it is nowhere to be found. Now, you will see all the other word useages as "Will" or "Will of God" Or "Man's Will" as well as many others....You would just think that as much as the term "Free Will" given to us from God would have been found somewhere between the text of God's Word.

Also, I just guessing, but I don't think God had "choosing a white car over a green one," in terms of the "Will of God" and our ability to choose right from wrong.....lololo only kidding....lolol

I don't know about that, Cajun, I've seen a color green that was just...wrong.