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Clarification on sexual sin


unworthy.sinner

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Are these assumptions correct?

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if an unmarried person has sex with a married person, wouldn't that be considered adultery by both?

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adultery is having a sexual relation with some one other then your spouse......

so,

if you are not married, and you have a sexual relationship you are having a relation with some one that is not your spouse, it is adultery.....

even if you look upon another with lust in your heart, you have already committed it.... whether the act was completed or not....

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Are these assumptions correct?

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if an unmarried person has sex with a married person, wouldn't that be considered adultery by both?

I would certainly be interested in more views on this. Technically the unmarried has not sinned against their own spouse, as in the case of a married person, so while contributing to unfaithfulness they themselves have not been "unfaithful". Certainly the relationship could be defined as adulterous, and the sin of the married person would be defined as adultery, but as for the unmarried, fornication?

Looking at Scriptures like those in Matthew would tend to indicate that it would require the other party to marry (rather than fornicate) for adultery to be committed.

Matthew 5:32 NIV

But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

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Yes, me too.

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if an unmarried person has sex with a married person, wouldn't that be considered adultery by both?

I would certainly be interested in more views on this. Technically the unmarried has not sinned against their own spouse, as in the case of a married person, so while contributing to unfaithfulness they themselves have not been "unfaithful". Certainly the relationship could be defined as adulterous, and the sin of the married person would be defined as adultery, but as for the unmarried, fornication?

Looking at Scriptures like those in Matthew would tend to indicate that it would require the other party to marry (rather than fornicate) for adultery to be committed.

Matthew 5:32 NIV

But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

Sexual relations whether married or not is a sin, no matter what you may call it.

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Are these assumptions correct?

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I'm sorry, unworthy.sinner, but you are very wrong.

Anyone who engages in sexual activity with someone other than their spouse has commited adultry, and that includes single people.

It is a falacy to preach you have to be married to commit adultry.

Immorality and fornicaton simply describes what happens within the sin of adultry. Other terms are also used to describe activities within the sin of adultry, but I will refrain from listing these terms because of the age of our readers.

If you wish to discuss this further, please send me a PM.

ybiC

Hunter

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I have to agree with all the above Unworthy! The only thing that you haven't covered within the boundary of male female relationship that are legal or illegal are the relationship of the homosexual community. Are you saving that for another day, because God does address these matters as well?

I was merely looking at those relationships that are in keeping with the order of Creation ie men and women. As marriage is only ever between a man (male) and a woman (female), it is my view that sexual relationships between those of the same sex would never fall under the category of adultery, but would be categorised as fornication or sexual immorality. This is of course aside from the specific Scriptural references that address the issue of homosexual behaviour.

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