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why is polygamy allowed in the Old Testament?


givennewname

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Matthitjah is exactly right. There was no need for God to breath the breath of life into Eve because she was built from Adam's life - from his rib.

Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

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Thank you all for yr answers..

The problem with all the answers is that it does raise more questions than it answered, which is why would a holy God overlook sin in some circumstances and why he punishes sin severely and immediately. Are some sins more serious than others? Paul say sin is sin and if one breaks one sin, he breaks them all. Why should should a holy God overlook and tolerate something he has condemned like sin of polygamy???

That we have more questions is good and it shows how much more we are to continue to learn and seek God's word. It takes alot of work to seek answers. Abd we should always be as bereans checking the word to see what is true.

Excellent questions. For one we have to remember that only in the NT does it say that NOW God has put his laws on our hearts.

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Matthitjah is exactly right. There was no need for God to breath the breath of life into Eve because she was built from Adam's life - from his rib.

Ya know what, I know. I've said this before during discussions and MANY times that God did NOT breath life into Eve because her life came from his. When babies are born they inherit this life, thing is Eve was not Adam's baby. :whistling:

Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

Yes, men and women who have biological parents, but not the first woman, Eve meaning she did not have Adam's fallen nature as all humans born into this world do.

The Savior came through woman's SEED.

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First off, what I submitted was stipulated with it was
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Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

Yes, men and women who have biological parents, but not the first woman, Eve meaning she did not have Adam's fallen nature as all humans born into this world do.

The Savior came through woman's SEED.

No, she had her own fallen nature. Your is the same logic that lead to the Roman Church's conclusion that Mary was born without original sin.

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Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

Yes, men and women who have biological parents, but not the first woman, Eve meaning she did not have Adam's fallen nature as all humans born into this world do.

The Savior came through woman's SEED.

No, she had her own fallen nature. Your is the same logic that lead to the Roman Church's conclusion that Mary was born without original sin.

Mary had a human father, so how could that be? Eve did have her own fallen nature after she sinned, I agree with you, but every woman born of man has Asdam's fallen n ature because of their human fathers. Do explain how my LOGIC leads to Mary being born without original sin? When Catholicism came up with this, it had NO logic. Religion never does except that which is PURE. Christ had no human father. The human father passes on the sin nature.

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The word
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Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

Yes, men and women who have biological parents, but not the first woman, Eve meaning she did not have Adam's fallen nature as all humans born into this world do.

The Savior came through woman's SEED.

No, she had her own fallen nature. Your is the same logic that lead to the Roman Church's conclusion that Mary was born without original sin.

Mary had a human father, so how could that be? Eve did have her own fallen nature after she sinned, I agree with you, but every woman born of man has Asdam's fallen n ature because of their human fathers. Do explain how my LOGIC leads to Mary being born without original sin? When Catholicism came up with this, it had NO logic. Religion never does except that which is PURE. Christ had no human father. The human father passes on the sin nature.

The conclusion came as the result of the presumption that Eve was not infused with the fallen nature, combined with the promise that Christ would be born of the seed of the woman.

I don't necessarily agree with you that every woman born after Adam received Adam's fallen nature. But I do agree with yout that the fallen nature does seem to come from the male side. That's a somewhat controversial view that doesn't need to be supported by the Bible. In other words, it doesn't matter if that view is true Biblically or not. The fact is, all of humanity is in some way infused with the fallen nature.

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Nevertheless, with regard to sin, both the woman and the man were infused with the fallen nature, equally.

Yes, men and women who have biological parents, but not the first woman, Eve meaning she did not have Adam's fallen nature as all humans born into this world do.

The Savior came through woman's SEED.

No, she had her own fallen nature. Your is the same logic that lead to the Roman Church's conclusion that Mary was born without original sin.

Mary had a human father, so how could that be? Eve did have her own fallen nature after she sinned, I agree with you, but every woman born of man has Asdam's fallen n ature because of their human fathers. Do explain how my LOGIC leads to Mary being born without original sin? When Catholicism came up with this, it had NO logic. Religion never does except that which is PURE. Christ had no human father. The human father passes on the sin nature.

The conclusion came as the result of the presumption that Eve was not infused with the fallen nature, combined with the promise that Christ would be born of the seed of the woman.

I don't necessarily agree with you that every woman born after Adam received Adam's fallen nature. But I do agree with yout that the fallen nature does seem to come from the male side. That's a somewhat controversial view that doesn't need to be supported by the Bible. In other words, it doesn't matter if that view is true Biblically or not. The fact is, all of humanity is in some way infused with the fallen nature.

Yes all humanity man or woman inherited Adam's sin nature. In fact Paul says the woman is all the more accountable because it was her who listened to the serpent and sined first..

1Ti 2:13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve;

1Ti 2:14 and Adam was not beguiled, but the woman being beguiled hath fallen into transgression:

1Ti 2:15 but she shall be saved through her child-bearing, if they continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety.

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In fact Paul says the woman is all the more accountable because it was her who listened to the serpent and sined first..

1Ti 2:13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve;

1Ti 2:14 and Adam was not beguiled, but the woman being beguiled (or deluded, see scripture4all.org) hath fallen into transgression:

1Ti 2:15 but she (singular, 'a woman') shall be saved through her child-bearing, (actualy this is a noun in the Greek, 'the childbirth', again see scripture4all.org) if they (plural, 'a woman and a man') continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety.

Paul says 'Adam was created first then Eve' (notice his use of proper names) then he adds that 'Adam (proper name again) was not deceived' and he says but this woman 'has fallen' into transgression indicating that he's not talking about 'Eve' becasue this shows that the woman (of v.11) is continuing in this condition yet Eve was dead, plus Paul also said that this woman is 'being deluded'. Eve though came out of her deception and the traditional interpretation is no longer an acceptable one, that all women are deluded/deceived. The deceived woman of the Timothy passage though Paul had hope for as seen in his final statement. (Besides Paul says nothing of who sinned first, only who was formed/created first, and nothing about the serpent or who was accountable.) Paul holds Adam accountable in his other writings.

Look again at the scripture you quoted above as I've highlighted what Paul wrote.

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