Alter2Ego

ALTER2EGO -to- EVERYONE: This topic presents evidence of Jesus' historicity from secular history (meaning history that is not connected with the Bible). Before I present the evidence, I will first point out some other arguments. ARGUMENT #1 -- THE ARAB MUHAMMAD WAS NOT GOD'S PROPHET: Muslims claim they believe the Hebrew/Old Testament writings are inspired by YHWH/Jehovah/Yahweh on the one hand, while on the other hand they reject Jesus Christ as the promised Messiah. He was just an ordinary man, they argue. Islam has demoted Jesus Christ to a mere prophet rather than the only means of salvation for all humanity and the most powerful of God's created beings. As far as Muslims are concerned, Jesus Christ is inferior to the Arab prophet, Muhammad. The Arab Muhammad claimed he was inspired to memorize the Quran, starting at age 40, when the Angel Gabriel supposedly made contact with him. Keep in mind that at the time of this "contact" with the Angel Gabriel, Muhammad was steeped in the idolatrous worship of 360 idols in the Kabah. To hear the Muslims tell it, God who condemns idolatry in every conceivable manner suddenly had a change of heart and selected a grossly idolatrous Arab to write a new bible. I have had extended debates with Muslims on this topic, so I speak from personal experience. "{4} You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth. {5} You must not bow down to them nor be induced to serve them, because I Jehovah your God is a God exacting exclusive devotion, bringing punishment for the error of fathers upon sons, upon the third generation and upon the fourth generation, in the case of those who hate me;" (Exodus 20:4-5:)

You must really have it in for them. You wrote three lengthy posts back-to-back criticizing them. What did they do to you that has caused you to feel such dislike for them? Care to share with the forum?

ALTER2EGO -to- BOLD BELIEVER: The idea was Lot's and Lot's alone. Nowhere in the account of Sodom and Gomorrah does it say God told Lot to offer his daughters to the homosexuals trying to break down his door and get at the two angels send by YHWH/Jehovah/Yahwah. Remember, just because an event is reported in the Bible does not automatically mean God told the individual to do it. There are many events in the Bible that servants of Almighty God did on their own idea. The Bible simply gives us a historical account of the events. For instance, the Bible's account of David and Bathsheba at 2 Samuel 11:1-17 during which David impregnated Bathsheba, and then set up her husband Uriah to be killed in war, is a perfect example of a servant of God violating God's laws. Likewise, the account of Moses getting angry with the complaining Israelites right after they left Egyptian enslavement—at which time, Moses failed to give glory to YHWH/Jehovah/Yahweh before he struck the rock for water at Numbers 20:1-12—is simply a Biblical historical report of Moses' behavior and the consequences. Both David and Moses paid dearly for taking actions that were displeasing to God in these instances.

ALTER2EGO -to- MONARCHY: What is your understanding of what "hell" really is? In other words, when you see the expression "hell" in the Bible, what do you supposed it's with reference to? Do explain.