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TrevorL

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About TrevorL

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  • Birthday 02/14/1944

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    Lake Macquarie NSW Australia
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    Bible interests include Psalms, Isaiah and Galatians, but also all the Bible and its themes. I enjoy collecting and reading general interest books, but especially Bible related books and resources.

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  1. TrevorL

    Is the Trinity like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1?

    Greetings again Waggles, What you have quoted appears difficult at first from a non-Trinitarian view. In brief summary, this shows the development of the Yahweh Name, from Yahweh God the Father to incorporate Jesus the Son of God. I believe that John 8:58 is part of a theme, and in the two previous occasions where “I Am” occurs the KJV has translated these as “I am he” in John 8:24,28. Note especially verse 28 where Jesus is claiming his complete dependence on God his Father. Neither of these refer back to Exodus 3:14, neither does John 8:58. The correct translation of “Ehyeh” in Exodus 3:14 is “I will be”, as per Tyndale, RV and RSV margins and KJV of Exodus 3:12. Have you had opportunity to consider Psalm 110:1, where Yahweh is distinguished from David’s Lord? Thus Yahweh in this passage refers to God the Father and not Jesus, who is David's Lord. Please also consider the numerous NT quotations of Psalm 110:1 where this distinction is maintained. Kind regards Trevor
  2. TrevorL

    Is the Trinity like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1?

    Greetings Waggles, Have you ever considered that the way Proverbs 8 personifies Wisdom as a Wise Woman and is not a literal person here, is a precursor to the language of John 1 where the Word is personified, and is not a literal person? Wisdom and the Word pre-existed, not Jesus. Have you ever considered Psalm 110:1 where Yahweh, God the Father is distinguished from David's Lord, our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, who is now seated at the right hand of Yahweh, God the Father? Kind regards Trevor
  3. TrevorL

    Is the Trinity like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1?

    Greetings Hazard, I said in my previous post, that I was taught from my youth, that there is One God the Father and that our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. I also at the age of 19 onwards became more aware that local churches taught the Trinity, and I suggest that what you have stated in your latest Post is a typical example. I could answer most of what you have said, one portion, or one Scripture at a time, but a few may suffice. The most obvious one is that despite Waggles objection, and without addressing what he stated, you continue to quote 1 John 5:7 again. I suggest that you look at a few Trinitarian commentaries, and even they reject this verse. Barnes NT Notes for example gives a reasonable coverage. Please note that most modern translations simply exclude this verse. I suggest that some Trinitarians must feel desperate if they need to quote 1 John 5:7. Psalm 110:1 (KJV): The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Please note that there is a distinction made between Yahweh, God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, David’s Lord. In the Hebrew “LORD” and “Lord” here are two different words. The two “Lords” are only in English. Even the KJV translators distinguish the two words in Matthew 22:44. I suggest that the one Name is Yahweh, and that this not a Trinity formula. Yahweh God the Father worked in and through the Son of God partly by means of God’s power, the Holy Spirit to accomplish God’s purpose, revealed in His Name Yahweh. The three elements are found in the following: Matthew 1:20–21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS (Yahweh’s salvation): for he shall save his people from their sins. Acts 2:22–23 (KJV): 22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: 23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: Neither of these quotations match the Trinity concept. Kind regards Trevor
  4. TrevorL

    Is the Trinity like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1?

    Greetings Your closest friendnt, I appreciate your interest and invitation. What I would like to present is what I would teach our children as a framework or basis to consider other aspects of this subject. This was my experience up to say the age of 19, when I then needed to consider additional concepts such as the meaning of Yahweh and Elohim and the subject of God manifestation and also compare other ideas, such as the strange teaching in a few local Churches, called the Trinity. Our Sunday School teaches at three levels, Junior, Intermediate and Senior, and subdivide the lessons into five years in each category, staring with Genesis and ending with the Apostles. This makes 15 years, and is suitable to cover all this from the age of 4 to 19. We are introduced to the one God as creator in Genesis 1-2, the promise concerning the seed of the woman who would overcome sin and its effects in Genesis 3:15. We learn of Abraham and his call to the land that he and his seed would receive for ever, and see in the offering of Isaac a pattern of greater things to come, in the offering up of God’s Son, in his crucifixion, death and resurrection. The Angel of Yahweh appeared to Moses, and revealed the Name of God as Yahweh, “He who will be or become”, and this Name was revealed to indicate that God would be active in delivering Israel out of Egypt. We read of the promises to David concerning his seed who would also be the Son of God. Coming to the NT, we read of the conception and birth of Jesus the Son of God in fulfilment of this promise to David in the following terms: Luke 1:30–35 (KJV): 30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. 31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. 32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: 33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God. As a result Jesus was born as a human, a man child, a descendant of Adam through Mary his mother, and yet was the Son of God because God was his father in the conception / birth process. God is the Father, first because he is the father of Jesus the Son of God, in his conception and birth, and then also the Son of God in his character and in his resurrection. Luke then records that Jesus grew in wisdom and understanding: Luke 2:40,52 (KJV): 40 And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him. 52 And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man. At the time of his ministry, John records that they beheld the moral glory revealed in Jesus, the only begotten of the Father: John 1:14 (KJV): And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. When Paul wrote his Letter to the Romans, he states that the Gospel is centred in the fact that Jesus is the son of David and Son of God by birth, and declared to be the Son of God by his moral character, and because he has now been raised from the dead, and he is now seated at the right hand of the One God, His Father Psalm 110:1: Romans 1:1–5 (KJV): 1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) 3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; 4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: 5 By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name: Kind regards Trevor
  5. TrevorL

    Is the Trinity like 1/3+1/3+1/3=1?

    Greetings, I have read many of your confusing explanations of the Trinity, a doctrine that was nearly fully developed by the 3rd and 4th Centuries by the Apostate Church. I am not sure when the Athanasian Creed was first written, but it is a most confusing document written on this subject. The Bible and Apostolic teaching is that there is One God, the Father, known in the OT as Yahweh, and our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. Kind regards Trevor
  6. TrevorL

    Kingdom of God.

    Greetings Berean, One definition is found in Daniel 2:44, where it states that in the future Jesus will return and overthrow the present kingdoms of men and replace them with the Kingdom of God upon this earth, and from elsewhere this will last 1000 years. Many prophecies such as Isaiah 2:1-4 reveal the details, where Jesus sits upon the throne of David in Jerusalem, and the remnants of the nations become subject and learn God's ways. Micah 4:1-8 uses the same language and reveals that the nation of Israel will be fully restored and converted and become the first dominion in the Kingdom of God. Kind regards Trevor
  7. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again Shiloh357, Your definition was the following: You say: “Elohim is what we refer to as a plural of majesty in divine terms.” This seems obscure to me. If I was to define Elohim, I would firstly note that part of the word has “El” and this is another title for God representing strength or power, indicating that God the Father is the source of power or strength. Then there is some suggestion that Elohim is the plural of Eloah, and this could be translated as the Strong or Powerful one. Thus as far as the derivation of the word and its meaning, then Elohim could be translated “Mighty Ones”. The question then is how is this word Elohim used? We find it is used for God Himself, but often also includes the Angels. Often Elohim is used with a singular verb such as in Genesis 1:1. One explanation of this is the same as your suggestion, but my previous definition also fits. I believe that it is the One God, the Father who works through numerous representatives, such as Angels, Judges and His Son the Lord Jesus Christ. I suggest that Elohim in Genesis 17:22 and Exodus 3:6 is not God the Father, nor the second person of the Trinity, but an Angel representing God. You say: “It is an intensive plural that is not numerical when applied to God. So in reference to the God of the Bible, "Elohim" is not "Gods." You seem to make up the rule to suit your understanding. Yes there are instances of intensive plural in Hebrew, but I believe that there is a plurality in the word Elohim, and that plurality includes God the Father’s representatives, the Angels, Judges and the Lord Jesus Christ, depending on the context. Psalm 8:5 is one example where the best translation of Elohim is Angels. Also Psalm 8:5 is a summary of Genesis 1:26-27 explaining who are the “Us” and “Our” of Genesis 1:26. I initially checked my interlinear NASB95 on Logos 7 and now after your response I have checked the interlinear on Bible Hub. Both these sources show John 10:30 and John 17:11 are the same. Please check your Greek references again. The NASB95 interlinear had two different Greek texts, and these differed from each other, but John 10:30 and John 17:11 were the same when each text was compared to the same text. Did you use two different texts or a text that differs from my references? Kind regards Trevor
  8. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again Shiloh357, You have mainly asserted the Trinity and denied my belief that there is one God the Father and Jesus is the Son of God. I will briefly comment on the following: I certainly agree that Elohim is not "Gods" in the English sense of the word. I believe that Elohim can be defined as the One God who works through many agents, such as the Angels, the Judges and the Lord Jesus Christ. I believe that in Genesis 1:26 God the Father is inviting the Angels to participate in the creation of man. Psalm 8:5 supports this view, as this is David’s summary of Genesis 1:26-27. Elohim in Psalm 8:5 is translated Angels. Could you please check your Greek references as I found the occurrence in John 10:30 and the two occurrences in John 17:11 to be all the same. Kind regards Trevor
  9. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again Shiloh357 and patrickjane, What you say could be correct if the Trinity was true. But I suggest that the Trinity is not taught in the Bible. I was introduced to the concept that there is one God the Father and that the Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God when I was an infant, and we continue to teach our infants. I was introduced to an exposition of the Yahweh Name and understanding of OT use of Elohim when I was 19 at a YPs study weekend. My understanding of all of this has expanded over the years and I now have a better understanding of God the Father’s revelation of Himself and his character and purpose as it is centred in His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. I appreciate your thorough treatment of Philippians 2. I suggest that it is a comparison with Adam. Note the RV mg “Gr. A thing to be grasped”. Jesus was born the Son of God, the greatest prince ever born, but he did not use this status and privilege in a proud way, but humbled himself as a servant, and was obedient unto death. That glory was in prospect before the creation. Notice the past tense of Psalm 8:5. It speaks as if it was an accomplished fact. Despite your claim to Hebrew, I would like to see your exposition of the plural “us” in Genesis 1:26-27 and the introduction and use of Elohim in Genesis 1-3. I suggest that this is Trinitarian double talk to reject the Biblical teaching that Jesus is the Son of God. How do you explain the same language “one” used in John 17 for the disciples? I view the Word in John 1:1-3 the same as Wisdom in Proverbs 8. It is speaking of how the character of God, the fullness of grace and truth came to be revealed in God’s begotten Son, the word made flesh. Kind regards Trevor
  10. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again Shiloh357 and patrickjane, That is why I do not accept the Trinity. My understanding is that there is the One God the Father, and our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. This can be explained and understood, from a children's level to an adult understanding. No need to go from light to darkness. I am conscious of “sons of thunder”, but Jesus is both the literal Son of God by birth and he is also the fullness of God by character. This is also why God is called the Father, as all things are derived from Him. When we bow before Jesus in worship it is to the glory of God the Father Philippians 2:9-11. God gave him the power Acts 2:22. I believe that Philippians 2:5-8 is speaking of the disposition of the mind of Jesus during his teenage years and leading up to and including his ministry. Nothing to do with pre-existence and incarnation. The language is in contrast with Adam who followed Eve who grasped at equality. Not sure if this was meant to be your answer to me, but not sure of your meaning. I believe that Elohim has a range of meaning, rather than a different meaning. I suggest that it could be defined as the One God, the Father who works in and through individuals, such as Angels, Judges and also through Jesus the Son of God. There are no distinguishing capitals in Hebrew. I suggest that Jesus’ comments in John 10:30-36 help to unlock the Biblical usage of Elohim, and Jesus uses Psalm 82:6 to explain his own role, not as God, but as the representative of God. Kind regards Trevor
  11. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again shiloh357, I may not fully explain the eternity of God, but I can accept this without any concern, just as I can accept that the believers will become immortal at the return of Jesus. Until I hear a reasonable explanation of Jesus being fully God and fully man, especially in his youth, then I will retain my belief that Jesus was a man, the Son of God because the One God, God the Father was his father in the conception / birth process and Mary was his mother Luke 1:35. He grew as a child and grew in wisdom and in favour with God and man Luke 2:52. Yes I do not understand the Trinity, because it is beyond understanding and is a so-called mystery to hide this problem. You are stating the Trinity perspective, not what the Bible teaches Luke 1:35, Romans 1:1-4. A son has a father, and the father of Jesus is God the Father Matthew 11:25. Kind regards Trevor.
  12. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again Shiloh357 and KiwiChristian, I suggest that Trinitarians are forced to say it is a mystery because the Trinity is incomprehensible, but the Bible teaching concerning God is simple and clear. The Trinity is incomprehensible because it has irreconcilable concepts that do not stand up to reasoning or any explanation. The Trinity would have to teach us that Jesus had two minds as a child, the mind of a child and the full mind of God (if he was also fully God) and there would be no real communication between the two minds. Further to my previous Post, the understanding of the use of Elohim for the Angels and Judges is one step towards understanding Thomas’ words in John 20:28. The title “God” as applied to Jesus is less than the title that John assigns him in the next few verses, the title and status of being The Son of God. If John wanted to teach that Jesus is God the Son, would not this be the opportunity. Rather the following summarises John’s stated purpose in writing his account. John 20:30-31 (KJV): 30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: 31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. The Angels and Judges can be called “Elohim”, but only Jesus has the exalted status of being the Only Begotten Son of God. He was the Son of God by birth, moral character and resurrection from the dead Romans 1:1-4. The Bible teaches that there is one God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. Kind regards Trevor
  13. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings patrick jane, Yes, and God also called the Angels "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5, refer Hebrews 2 and the Judges "Elohim" in Psalm 82:6, refer John 10:30-36. "Elohim" is the usual Hebrew word translated God in the OT and is the word used in Psalm 45:6 when speaking of the future king who would sit upon David's throne in Jerusalem. Kind regards Trevor
  14. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again KiwiChristian, I can find many references that say that Jesus is the Son of God, but never God the Son. The following is an explanation of the Yahweh Name, and even though this is fairly lengthy, it is meant to be a summary only. The Name of God was revealed to Moses in the following terms: Exodus 3:14-15 (KJV): 14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. 15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations. Most translations and commentators accept the present tense I am that I am, but notice in the margin of the RV (or ASV) and RSV, an alternative is given I will be that I will be or I will be what I will be, showing that some modern scholars suggest this alternative reading. Although not popular it appears that this future tense is the correct translation. Not only modern scholars, Tyndale also translated this in the future tense. Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you. The word ehyeh is in Exodus 3:14 is the same in the earlier statement in v12, and here the translators give the future tense: Exodus 3:12 (KJV): And he said, Certainly I will be with thee; and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee: When thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this mountain. Not only does this fix the tense, it also introduces the concept that the Name of God is also associated with some future activity. This future tense and future activity was to be God acting to deliver Israel out of Egypt, so that Israel would become a people for His Name. They would be a living witness to the purpose of God, and a witness to the existence of God. The following passage emphasises this future work in delivering Israel with the future aspect of the Name: Exodus 6:1-8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH (or Yahweh) was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD. When Israel was delivered out of Egypt the Name of God remains the same, but the particular activity has been accomplished: Exodus 15:1-3 (KJV): 1 Then sang Moses and the children of Israel this song unto the LORD, and spake, saying, I will sing unto the LORD, for he hath triumphed gloriously: the horse and his rider hath he thrown into the sea. 2 The LORD is my strength and song, and he is become my salvation: he is my God, and I will prepare him an habitation; my fathers God, and I will exalt him. 3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name. The future tense of God's Name He will be or become has been accomplished, and Yahweh had become Israel's salvation. But this was not the ultimate completion of the Yahweh Name. God's purpose with the earth was not complete with the salvation of Israel out of Egypt. God's purpose was declared in the following, but sadly this was spoken at a time when the very generation that had been born through God's deliverance failed. Numbers 14:21 (KJV): But as truly as I live, all the earth shall be filled with the glory of the LORD. The above raises the question of how and when will the earth be filled with the glory of God. One indication is found when the Psalmist uses the same words as Moses Song to speak of another deliverance: Psalm 118:14-25 (KJV): 14 The LORD is my strength and song, and is become my salvation. 15 The voice of rejoicing and salvation is in the tabernacles of the righteous: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly. 16 The right hand of the LORD is exalted: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly. 17 I shall not die, but live, and declare the works of the LORD. 18 The LORD hath chastened me sore: but he hath not given me over unto death. 19 Open to me the gates of righteousness: I will go into them, and I will praise the LORD: 20 This gate of the LORD, into which the righteous shall enter. 21 I will praise thee: for thou hast heard me, and art become my salvation. 22 The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner. 23 This is the LORDS doing; it is marvellous in our eyes. 24 This is the day which the LORD hath made; we will rejoice and be glad in it. 25 Save now, I beseech thee, O LORD: O LORD, I beseech thee, send now prosperity. The above is quoted at length to show that there was to be a greater salvation in fulfilment of the Yahweh Name. It is evident from the context that this salvation is by means of the crucifixion, death and resurrection of the man of God's right hand, the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God. The greater deliverance is revealed even in the conception and birth of the child: Matthew 1:20-21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. The meaning of the name Jesus is revealed: for he shall save his people from their sins. Was Jesus to be an independent Saviour? No, the name Jesus incorporates the Yahweh Name, Je-sous, Jo-shua, or Yah-oshea. He was to be Yahweh's Salvation. Here then is the extension or fulfilment of the Yahweh Name, Yahweh was to be, to become. He was to become salvation Exodus 15:2, in and through Jesus, the Son of God. Yahweh is the Saviour, Jesus is the Saviour. In other words Yahweh, God the Father is the Saviour through His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. Yahweh has become salvation. Salvation is now offered in the Name of Jesus Christ: Acts 4:10-12 (KJV): 10 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. 11 This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. 12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. Ultimately the revelation in the NT that God is God the Father, and that Jesus Christ is the Son of God, is equivalent to the Yahweh Name, as Yahweh has become Jesus, and will ultimately be All in All 1 Corinthians 15:28. The expression “God the Father” can be translated into every language to convey the simple, clear understanding of God’s purpose and character. No, the source of 1 John 5:7 was not in any of the main recognised manuscripts. It would take you five minutes to Google 1 John 5:7 and consider the various estimations of the veracity and source of the KJV 1 John 5:7. Same as I use the concept that the Bible is inspired, not the KJV, I use “Greek text” as representing the original inspired Greek Bible, Matthew to Revelation, which is represented today by many portions of Greek manuscripts. Some of these would be closer to the original than the others. Various scholars have attempted to put together the original Greek Bible by studying the various manuscripts. They then use this to translate the Greek into English and other languages. Kind regards Trevor
  15. TrevorL

    Jesus Is God

    Greetings again KiwiChristian, I agree with the first part, but claim that the KJV is helpful in thus coming to an understanding that there is One God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. The Bible as a whole eventually is necessary not an imperfect translation. For example “I will be” in Exodus 3:14 is an excellent start to understand the character and purpose of God. I will let you research this for yourself. I read one source that stated that Erasmus did not include 1 John 5:7 in the first edition of his Greek text as he could not find it in any Greek manuscript. He was pressured by the Catholic Church and added it to his third edition. I have not studied textual criticism, but when I was young I met a senior Plymouth Brother who studied the Greek text. I suppose he liked the Darby version. He told me on one occasion that he went to the Bible Society shop in Sydney and criticised them for one of their simple translations. What surprised me was that on another occasion he seemed to question a passage of 12 verses that is in the KJV, but since then I have verified that this is definitely part of the Bible to my satisfaction. Kind regards Trevor
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