I've read all your posts from the beginning and have a question for you. When you hear someone speaking a language you don't understand - say in the heart of Africa, does it NOT sound like gibberish or fast mubblings? Well, guess what? God understands them.
The key verse that all passages MUST line up with, including Acts 2, is at the beginning of the chapter on the difference between the two manifestations of tongues from the Spirit. 1 Corinthians 14:2 2 For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries.
The things that you have been claiming about tongues, completely go against this rule, and it is time your thinking adjusts to line up with Scripture.
You claim a human person who knows the language spoken must be present. Can't you see how your statement flies in complete opposition to the rule? And how your breaking the rule colors your whole belief on all other passages in Acts? By the way, 1 Corinthians was written around 15 years before Luke wrote Acts. I would wager you believe that in Acts 2, the apostles who were speaking in tongues were speaking the different languages of the devout Jews, and those Jews heard their own languages naturally? That is not what it says, but your colored glasses may erroneously see it that way. Contradicting a rule will have a domino affect on your understanding anything on the subject.
What is funny is there are even Pentecostals who believe as you do. They try to make their understanding of Acts 2, which comes first in the NT, and make the rule line up with the story, instead of the other way around.?