CaptWalker

Oh, so that's what 37 means? And all this time it kept reminding me of Cool Hand Luke's prison#, maybe you've heard that one before?? Either way i would agree that God can send a "messenger of Satan" to anyone He chooses, and Paul was just a major example in the Bible. And it is not always going to be something physical but i think the what it does to us mentally or emotionally is what will affect us the most. But the problem i think is actually recognizing whether it is an actual "thorn" from Satan through God or just something that has happened to you as a part of life?

Well i'm sorry if i'm repeating what someone else has already said but didn't have time to read through all the comments... "But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation. Because they said, HE HATH AN UNCLEAN SPIRIT." {Mark-3:29-30} IDK, maybe i'm the exception, but to me anyway it seems pretty clear cut that the "blaspheming" was when the scribes and Pharisees basically accused Christ of casting out demons by the power of Satan, period. And unless you are doing the same thing now by ascribing miracles to someone having an unGodly/evil "power source" within, then i don't see how you could also be guilty of this?? But I do also believe the power of Satan is real and can be used by certain people to perform incredible acts, and even God Himself may help bring it to pass in allowing these so called "miracles" to occur, kind of like a precursor to 2ndThess-2:9-11.

This question is taken from Luke-19 and Matthew-25, the parable of the pounds/talents. In both versions the "Master" is basically referred to in the same way by the lazy servant who did not gain anything from what he had been given because he hid it. He is called "hard" and "austere", but i am focusing more on the Luke version and the meaning of the word Austere which is translated as "harsh,rough,rigid". Now I know the "Master" in the story is at least a type of GOD, but my question of late is does that make him 100% in nature and character? Actually in every teaching i've ever heard on this the focus has always been on the lesson to be learned rather than if the Master and GOD are actually one in the same? But no where in the chapter does it indicate whether they are or not, but only that Christ taught it as if they both were. Even if there seems to be a contradiction between the Master simply dishing out retribution and punishment, whereas God is being fair and just even if the final judgement/sentence is exactly the same? Anyway i have just been a little bothered and confused by this lately and about the attitude God seems to have towards someone who may actually deserve to be chastised but at the same time may have just been too ignorant or overly cautious and afraid to take some action or make a big life decision for instance? But maybe someone else has another perspective on this and i do appreciate any feedback or input...

Well if good works did validate ones' own personal views then i would say you might be 110% CORRECT...but thank GOD that is not true or else simple laymen like me may not ever be taken seriously! But really, i don't think most people here or anywhere are going to use that either for or against you...well it may in fact put many at ease who do hold to the same views as yourself, be that as it may? But as far as what that "ol preacher" said about the Bible being other peoples' mail...not sure exactly what he meant but it doesn't sound too flattering as far as it being the "inspired" Word of God?? I just never saw it as being the writers own "personal" interpretations all the way through, since they were even careful enough to use the italics for those words they were not sure about. And i was under the impression that the Holy Spirit was giving this inspiration all the way through, or you have to agree at least in the New Testament? But I guess if you want to call the greatest work ever written just someone's "mail" then to each his own i suppose...but that's just my own layman's opinion of course. But i was also curious just what the Preterist view was on the antichrist as far as whether he is still yet to arrive? And what exactly do they/you believe the "mark of the beast" will be...just still confused about how it all ties in and is supposed to end up making sense, which is why i stated in my first post that these are subjects i do not like to discuss since we basically just end up back where we started.

Well Charles that's a whole lot more than i have done with my own life, sadly to say, and regardless of what your own personal views are i at least respect you for your service! Speaking of which, there is actually one TV peacher/teacher/pastor who was also a former MARINE in Korea, and i learned a whole lot of what i know now from listening to him. And you and some others here may also be familiar with him, but will not mention his name here. But personally i do still trust that the KJV is very accurate as far as simple words are concerned. But I use the Revised Standard Version which says basically the same thing. And I have also heard Young's translation in VERY good as well, but i was only wondering how he got "may not" from "SHALL not"?? But once again it's possible i may just be overlooking something, but either way we can still agree to disagree... But as far as the Tribulation already having begun, i believe that would be based on the 70 year generation from 1948...but there are also 40 and 120 year generations in the Bible. I think the 70 weeks of Daniel is used in more ways that it was ever meant to be...but i also believe the fist half of the Tribulation will not include any of God's judgements and the antichrist isn't revealed until the midpoint.

And i was born 49 years ago(1970) so at least we have something in common! As far as Preterism goes, there are some subjects that i just don't bother discussing. But one thing i've always been confused about is when Jesus said "not one stone will be left upon another" referring to temple destruction in 70AD, but i've heard that many stones were still left standing...of course no one was there so how can you prove it one way or another?

Well I can kind of see why Megan thinks Sept. 30th would be significant, since at least one Bible teacher I've heard believes that's really the true date of Christ's birth, and that Christmas was only the conception. Well actually he says the 29th, but I'm not going to be that nitpicky about it. Actually I would think the Fall Equinox on the 21st would make more sense? But either way, I have always wondered just what calendar we are on, especially since 1948 when Israel became a new nation? And if maybe God is actually going by the old 360 days, like the 1,260 days, which would actually mean we would have lost an entire year(give or take) by now, or gained one depending on how you look at it? But am only speculating and also don't forget about the 6-day war in June 1967, which was also a major benchmark of sorts that a lot of people tend to overlook.

Well i didn't read your entire post since my ADD is kind of kicking in this morning but i am only assuming maybe this has something to do with the one year period that Noah was in the ark? Well either way i also feel the last 3 and 1/2 years will be shortened to about one years, and i also base that on the 5 months in Revelation 9. And that it's also possible the great WRATH may not start until those last 5 months, but not really positive on that yet? But do kind of buy into the 2026 theory, since Israel became a nation again in 1948, and 77 years later?? But if the last part has indeed been shortened to one year then wouldn't that put it around 2022-23, assuming the first 3 1/2 years has already begun in 2018??

~"And he said,For this reason I have told you the no one can come to me unless it is granted by the Father." "Because of this many of his disciples turned back and no longer went about with him" {John-6:65-66}