Guest Bro David™ Posted April 3, 2005 Share Posted April 3, 2005 Leviticus 18.22 and 20.13. Leviticus 18.22 and 20.13 say a man lying with another man as with a woman is an abomination. Truluck noted there is no hint of homosexuality or sexuality implied in these verses.<{POST_SNAPBACK}> Let us see, Authorized Version Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. American Standard Version Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. The Bible in Basic English You may not have sex relations with men, as you do with women: it is a disgusting thing. The Darby Bible And thou shalt not lie with mankind as one lieth with a woman: it is an abomination. The Webster Bible Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it [is] abomination. Young's Literal Translation 'And with a male thou dost not lie as one lieth with a woman; abomination it [is]. World English Bible "'You shall not lie with a man, as with a woman. That is detestible. If after the use of The Hebrew Lexicon, Truluck fails to see how a man laying with the a batach -baw-takh' is sexual. It is true then that he will not see that indeed the verse was talking about Homosexuality. With Love David King Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
apothanein kerdos Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Royal Member Followers: 1 Topic Count: 331 Topics Per Day: 0.05 Content Count: 8,713 Content Per Day: 1.20 Reputation: 21 Days Won: 0 Joined: 07/28/2004 Status: Offline Share Posted April 3, 2005 This is why we no longer have any prominent theologians comming from Europe. They deny the Bible and even deny the faith. Gone are the days of brilliant philosophers such as C.S. Lewis, present are the days of unsound doctrine that has no logical or linguistic backing. In Corinthians you are looking at the wrong word. We must look to the Greek word malakos which is translated into sodomite or homosexual or pedophile. All three can translate into this word, as the word is used in Corinthians. The interpretation of 1 Timothy is likewise seen as false. The reason it is interpreted as Homosexuality is because extra-biblical sources at the time use the same word to bring about the same connotation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Leonard Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Royal Member Followers: 2 Topic Count: 115 Topics Per Day: 0.02 Content Count: 8,281 Content Per Day: 1.12 Reputation: 249 Days Won: 3 Joined: 03/03/2004 Status: Offline Birthday: 10/30/1955 Share Posted April 3, 2005 That such specious stupidity could come out of ANY university in the Western world, is just another good reason why I--as an academic--am heartbroken for the state of Western academics. What drivel! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Esh Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Nonbeliever Followers: 0 Topic Count: 0 Topics Per Day: 0 Content Count: 20 Content Per Day: 0.00 Reputation: 0 Days Won: 0 Joined: 04/01/2005 Status: Offline Share Posted April 3, 2005 God clearly defines marriage as one man and one woman for life. Really? where? Any sexual contact outside of one man and one woman who are in a covenant marriage relationship with each other and God is strictly forbidden. No it isn't. Polygamy was never forbidden. The idea that sex outside of marriage is unlawful could have come from the following mistranslation: And if a man entice a virgin [KJV=maid] that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins. Exodus 22:16-17 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerioke Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 97 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 5,850 Content Per Day: 0.83 Reputation: 128 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/19/2005 Status: Offline Birthday: 08/11/1911 Share Posted April 3, 2005 Genesis 2 24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest shiloh357 Posted April 3, 2005 Share Posted April 3, 2005 God clearly defines marriage as one man and one woman for life. Really? where? Genesis 2:23-24 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. [24] Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. AND Matthew 19:5-6 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? [6] Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. Any sexual contact outside of one man and one woman who are in a covenant marriage relationship with each other and God is strictly forbidden. No it isn't. Polygamy was never forbidden. Polygamy was never God's intended plan. He did not forbid it, but He warned against it. Polygamy in Scripture never produced any good fruit. But that is really beside the point. The idea that sex outside of marriage is unlawful could have come from the following mistranslation: And if a man entice a virgin [KJV=maid] that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins. Exodus 22:16-17 Mistranslation? So what is your manuscript evidence to support that allegation? How do you know this was a mistranslation? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Esh Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Nonbeliever Followers: 0 Topic Count: 0 Topics Per Day: 0 Content Count: 20 Content Per Day: 0.00 Reputation: 0 Days Won: 0 Joined: 04/01/2005 Status: Offline Share Posted April 3, 2005 Genesis 2:23-24 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. [24] Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. The word translated as wife is eshah, which more accurately means female. Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that [are] not clean by two, the male and his female[eshah]. Genesis 2:24 Polygamy was never forbidden. Polygamy was never God's intended plan. He did not forbid it, but He warned against it. Reference please. Polygamy in Scripture never produced any good fruit. What about Jacob then? But that is really beside the point. Yes, it isn't about homosexuality. But it would seem that the religious prohibition of unorthodox sexuality is a reccuring theme. Control by guilt comes to mind. The idea that sex outside of marriage is unlawful could have come from the following mistranslation: And if a man entice a virgin [KJV=maid] that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins. Exodus 22:16-17 Mistranslation? So what is your manuscript evidence to support that allegation? How do you know this was a mistranslation? Because the KJV rendering of b'thulaw as maid instead of virgin is incorrect. Almah could be correctly translated as maid, but not b'thulaw Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nebula Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Royal Member Followers: 10 Topic Count: 5,823 Topics Per Day: 0.75 Content Count: 45,870 Content Per Day: 5.92 Reputation: 1,897 Days Won: 83 Joined: 03/22/2003 Status: Offline Birthday: 11/19/1970 Share Posted April 3, 2005 Great - another hormone-pleaser. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerioke Posted April 3, 2005 Group: Royal Member Followers: 3 Topic Count: 97 Topics Per Day: 0.01 Content Count: 5,850 Content Per Day: 0.83 Reputation: 128 Days Won: 0 Joined: 03/19/2005 Status: Offline Birthday: 08/11/1911 Share Posted April 3, 2005 Genesis 2:23-24 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. [24] Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. The word translated as wife is eshah, which more accurately means female. Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that [are] not clean by two, the male and his female[eshah]. Genesis 2:24 Polygamy was never forbidden. Polygamy was never God's intended plan. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest shiloh357 Posted April 3, 2005 Share Posted April 3, 2005 QUOTE(shiloh357 @ Apr 4 2005, 10:05 AM) Genesis 2:23-24 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. [24] Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. The word translated as wife is eshah, which more accurately means female. Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that [are] not clean by two, the male and his female[eshah]. Genesis 2:24 Ishah can mean woman or it can mean wife depending on the context. When it says wife it means wife in Genesis 2. The context distinguishes between woman and wife in that chapter. God's pattern for marriage is ONE man and ONE woman who marry, and stay married until they die. The same is when using the word gune' in greek for wife in Matt 19:5-6. Jesus is quoting from that passage in Genesis. The reference means wife or married woman as it used in both of these OT and NT references. Polygamy was never God's intended plan. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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