The Earth became? formless and empty

[nebula]

In other words, if the translators had not inserted words there for readability, it might have read:

1 First God created the heavens and the Earth, 2 the Earth formless and empty.

Well, that sure does make it more poetic, doesn't it?

[Floatingaxe]

It is a pretty overlooked matter, that the Earth was already here and was formless and void of perhaps topography and water on the surface before God set about developing His Creation FURTHER..

[Botz]

...I did not start this thread to discuss all of that, the age of the Earth, details of Creation, or any related topics. I stated the thread for one, very spcific and narrow topic, all centers on one word in our English bibles - watch for the bold text.

Gen 1:2

Now the earth was formless and empty

There are those that that word "WAS" could have or should have been translated to say:

Now the earth became formless and empty

The was/became question, is what my question is about. There are those on the boards here, who hold the belief that the Hebrew justifies the "became" idea. The notion is that if it became empty, then it must not have been empty before verse 2. As I previously pointed out, there actualy is not word in the Hebrew text in this verse, regarding the emptyness of Earth in a timing sense. In other words, if the translators had not inserted words there for readability, it might have read:

1 First God created the heavens and the Earth, 2 the Earth formless and empty.

Notice I did not have "Now the Earth" or "AND the

Earth" and there was no "the Earth was" or "the Earth became"

Those word bolded above, do not exist in the Hebrew, they are added into English. So finally, here is my actual question again:

Is there any justification for rendering the verse "the the Earth BECAME empty". The corrolarry question is is there and justification for ruling that rendering out.

Thank you all, feel free to kick ideas around as you like, but I am looking for someone to adress my actual question. Thanks

Hi Bro...let me give it a stab.

I do not quite understand from the hebrew how you arrive at a translation...

2. the Earth formless and empty.

If one is going to translate directly it would be rendered

2. and the earth was wasteness and voidness

I underlined the word 'was', because it is there in the hebrew...not in the masculine form 'hayah' but in the 3rd person singular feminine form 'hay'tah' to agree with the feminine usage of the word 'aretz'-earth.

However the verb 'hayah' in hebrew is fairly expansive, and is translated as...To be, to exist, to become, to come to pass.

[Floatingaxe]

Sure, "BECAME" is good. The words, "Now" or "And" also are important, strongly suggesting a change from the time previous.

[Guest]

2. and the earth was wasteness and voidness

I underlined the word 'was', because it is there in the hebrew...not in the masculine form 'hayah' but in the 3rd person singular feminine form 'hay'tah' to agree with the feminine usage of the word 'aretz'-earth.

However the verb 'hayah' in hebrew is fairly expansive, and is translated as...To be, to exist, to become, to come to pass.

Now you guys are on target, and thanks for the great responses. Botz - you nailed what I was looking for, and my mistake. I elliminated the 'was', because I did not see it in the Hebrew, but, I was looking at the wrong was. Hebrew is definetly not my strong suit, in fact I do not even have the socks. This is why I asked the question - not that I can check anyone's Hebrew qualifications, but I know tht I do not have them. I know also, that when people say "in the Hebrew it says such and such" to not accept it without investigation, especially if no translator chose to translate it as "such and such".

[Botz]

I agree Omegaman..we should always check and double-check things and then make it our own.

[traveller]

I was looking at the wrong was.

Story of my life.....

[John Bernall]

The unfortunate thing about lexicons is that they aren't usually complete in there definitions, nor do they give every manner of word usage.

the question here is concerning the word Hay'thah (היתה) of B'reshith/Genesis 1:2.

this word is justified in being translated as "became", however, the sense of this word pertaining to a pre-Adamic age or other such anomaly, is not. the sense of this word as "became" means that it came into being in the following manner described in the verse. one manner to look at this verse in a literal word for word sense is:

And the earth came into being a desolation and chaos and darkness upon the face of the raging abyss, and the Ruach Elohim brooding upon the face of the waters.

this second verse does, as is known, describe the state in which Elohim created the heavens and the earth. there is no gap theory, though it makes for interesting mental gymnastics

much blessings,

John

[EricH]

Reading some posts here, I ran across the following:

One final comment about Gen. 1:2;

The King James Version says; And the earth was

[Botz]

Reading some posts here, I ran across the following:

One final comment about Gen. 1:2;

The King James Version says; And the earth was