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I'm glad you mentioned this because I believed something similar. Now, I feel I have broadened my viewpoint. And as you have said before, understanding the context is very important. I'd like to share an interesting twist and you can take it for what it's worth. I think that a rigorous study to make sure there are no cracks in our beliefs is vital. Please notice the following: Romans 11:25-27: ". . .A partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.” “This is My covenant with them, When I take away their sins.” You probably agree that these verses are pointing to the future. I believe it's very important to note the context of the verses that Paul was actually quoting here, apparently Isaiah 59:20, 21 in part and Isaiah 27:9. You will see what appears to be a future punishment of Israel, a "final punishment" in line with Ezekiel's prophecy. (Ezekiel 35:5) Please read Isaiah 59. Notice the list of Israel's sins mentioned there (verses 2-17), also notice the vengeance God takes because of it (Verse 18), see how a deliverer would come at that time (verse 20) and how eternal blessings would ensue (Verse 21). Doesn't this seem like a "final punishment" before blessings come in? It wouldn't be "spiritual Israel" that is deserving of a "final punishment" correct, or could it be literal Israel yet once again? Now in Isaiah 27, notice how in verses 7 and 8, Israel would be punished and later in verse 9, the error of Israel will be atoned for. Verses 12 and 13 continue the thought with the expression "in that day" and then mention future blessings. Some Bible commentaries try to force an application of these scriptures to the past, but they simply don't fit well at all for various reasons. Paul, though, was apparently quoting the verses mentioned above when pointing to the future. Why? Why did Paul believe that those prophecies had a future application? This definitely seems plausible. In Jude 14 and 15 you may notice that Enoch spoke in the past tense as if God had already done what the prophecy describes. Note also the mixing of past and future tenses in the prophecy concerning the Messiah at Isaiah 52:13–53:12. Also, if you believe that the events of the book of Revelation are pointing the future as many do, notice that the past tense is used throughout. Going back to Edom for a moment. I used to believe strongly that many of the prophecies regarding Edom were fulfilled already. I then began to research the matter further and I came across some shocking finds. Notice the following prophecies: “Edom will become an object of horror; everyone who passes by it will be appalled and will hiss at all its wounds. Like the overthrow of Sodom and Gomorrah with its neighbors,” says the Lord, “no one will live there, nor will anyone of mankind reside in it." (Jeremiah 49:17, 18) ". . .From generation to generation it will be desolate; none will pass through it forever and ever." (Isaiah 34:10) Petra in Jordan is described by archaeologists to be a territory of ancient Edom. "Petra was inhabited by the Edomites before the arrival of the Nabateans" according to an official website from Jordan. Nevertheless, Edom extended much farther than Petra. Although the prophecies clearly state that "no one will live there" and "none will pass through it forever", this is currently not the case. "More than 1 million people visited Petra last year." Furthermore, although some might think that Petra would be completely uninhabited due to the Biblical prophecies, the truth is that "few Bedouins still live inside the historic site of Petra, dating to around 300 B.C." according to National Geographic as can be seen here. Mofleh Bdoul was born there and has continued to live there all of his life. A photo of his cozy, spacious home that has been adapted inside a cave can be seen in the link. Now, the capital of Edom was Bozrah. (Isaiah 34:6, 63:1; Jeremiah 49:13; Amos 1:12; Genesis 36:31, 33) The Bible says that it would be ruins for all time. "For I have sworn by Myself,” declares the Lord, “that Bozrah will become an object of horror, a disgrace, a wasteland, and a curse; and all its cities will become permanent ruins.”" (Jeremiah 49:13) Bozrah or Busaira (Arabic: بُصَيْرا‎) is located in Tafilah Governorate, Jordan, between the towns of Tafilah (Tophel) and Shoubak (it is closer to this town). According to the general census taken in 2015, it has a population of 10,587. The prophecy of Jeremiah doesn't say that a few would live in Edom, it specifically says "no one will live there"--zero. Since this is not currently the case, will it be fulfilled in the future? If Edom has already been done away with, why then is Edom described in a conflict "at the time of the end"? (Daniel 11:40-43)

Could "Babylon the Great" be the location on earth with the highest concentration of demonic activity? Revelation 18:2: "And he called out with a mighty voice, “Fallen, fallen is Babylon the great! She has become a dwelling place for demons, a haunt for every unclean spirit, a haunt for every unclean bird, a haunt for every unclean and detestable beast."

Very true. Note, however, Ezekiel 37:15-28 which many apply to the future regarding a unification of Judah and Israel under one King, something that has not occurred yet, correct? Thus, is it possible that both Jeremiah 30 and Ezekiel 37 are pointing to the future? Ezekiel 21:25 (ESV) uses the expression "final punishment". Which translation do you use by the way? Because of what Ezekiel 35:5 clearly says: "Because you [Edom] cherished perpetual enmity and gave over the people of Israel to the power of the sword at the time of their calamity, at the time of their final punishment." Going back to the first point you mention about Judah and Israel being a division that no longer exists. I'm sure that you'd agree that the twelve tribes of Israel no longer exist. Yet notice the following: Matthew 19:28: "Jesus said to them, “Truly, I say to you, in the new world, when the Son of Man will sit on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." (Will there be twelve tribes of Israel once again in the future?) Luke 22:30: "That you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel." (Same question, will there be twelve tribes of Israel once again in the future?) Revelation 7:4-8: "And I heard the number of the sealed, 144,000, sealed from every tribe of the sons of Israel: 12,000 from the tribe of Judah were sealed, 12,000 from the tribe of Reuben, 12,000 from the tribe of Gad, 12,000 from the tribe of Asher, 12,000 from the tribe of Naphtali, 12,000 from the tribe of Manasseh, 12,000 from the tribe of Simeon, 12,000 from the tribe of Levi, 12,000 from the tribe of Issachar, 12,000 from the tribe of Zebulun, 12,000 from the tribe of Joseph, 12,000 from the tribe of Benjamin were sealed." (Will these tribes actually exist in the future, what's your opinion?) The point of all of this: is it possible we don't fully understand yet how prophecies concerning Israel will play out in the future?

Perfect. Now, an important question to answer is whether Israel would receive one more punishment in the future. Depending on the answer, it could tie things back around to Matthew 12:43-45. Here are some possible lines of evidence that Israel would receive a final punishment in the future: Jeremiah chapter 30 - Verse 7 describes a time of distress for Israel, verse 8 describes God breaking the yoke and bonds of Israel and verse 9 describes Israel serving God and David their king. Verse 24 wraps it all up: "In the latter days you will understand this." Since Israel is not yet serving "David their king", could the "time of distress" for Israel that would precede the serving of their king be referring to the future? Ezekiel 21:25-27 - It describes Israel's "final punishment". Obviously Israel's "final punishment" could not have occurred during the Babylonian siege since Israel received another crushing blow at the hands of the Romans in 70 C.E. Also, the prophecy doesn't seem to be referring to 70 C.E. since the prophecy states: "Remove the turban and take off the crown." There was no crown in Israel to take off at that time due to the Israel's continual subjugation by the Romans. Ezekiel 35:5, 8, 10 - According to prophecy, Edom would give Israel over to its enemies at the time of its "final punishment". This did not happen in 70 C.E., rather, the historian Josephus says that 20,000 Idumaeans helped the Jewish Zealots fight for independence from Rome. Jesus spoke of a time of trouble in Jerusalem that would be followed "immediately" by the "sign of the son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory". (Matthew 24:15-31; Mark 13:14-27; Luke 21:20-27) This hasn't happened yet, has it? Will there be a final punishment of Israel in the future?

Thank you for your input. If I'm not mistaken, you mention that people listening to Jesus would have to see the events of Luke 21 happen in their lifetime. Please note the following Biblical examples that may put an interesting perspective on things: Haggai 2:5: "According to the covenant that I made with you when you came out of Egypt. My Spirit remains in your midst. Fear not." (Did the people of Haggai's day see the covenant that God made with Israel when it came out of Egypt? If not, why would God be addressing the nation as "you" through the prophet Haggai?) Amos 2:10: "Also it was I who brought you up out of the land of Egypt and led you forty years in the wilderness, to possess the land of the Amorite." (Did the people of Amos' day see when God brought Israel out of Egypt? If not, why would God be addressing the nation as "you" through the prophet Amos?) Micah 6:4, 7:15: "For I brought you up from the land of Egypt and redeemed you from the house of slavery, and I sent before you Moses, Aaron, and Miriam. . . As in the days when you came out of the land of Egypt, I will show them marvelous things."" (Did the people of Micah's day see when God brought Israel out of Egypt? If not, why would God be addressing the nation as "you" through the prophet Micah?) From the examples given above, it might seem as though the word "you" can be like a piece of elastic that stretches over hundreds, if not thousands of years. Is it possible that Jesus was using the word "you" in the same sense? Could the word generation also carry a timeless sense and be referring to a class of people instead of a lifespan? Please notice the following examples where the word "generation" seems to carry a timeless sense: Psalm 12:7: "You, O Lord, will keep them; you will guard us from this generation forever." Psalm 14:5: "There they are in great terror, for God is with the generation of the righteous." Psalm 24:5, 6: "He will receive blessing from the Lord and righteousness from the God of his salvation. Such is the generation of those who seek him, who seek the face of the God of Jacob." Proverbs 30:11: "There is a generation of those who curse their fathers and do not bless their mothers." (Berean Study Bible) Of course we understand that the Greek and Hebrew carry different meanings for the word "generation" next to the English word. But you might find it interesting to note that even in the English language, at least as far back as the 1828 Webster's dictionary, the word generation had 6 different meanings and definition 5 was "A family; a race" and definition 6 was "Progeny; offspring". ( http://webstersdictionary1828.com/Dictionary/generation ) Michael, I'm trying my best not to be dogmatic on my side, yet is it possible, just possible that Jesus used the word "you" to refer to a specific class of people and the word "generation" in the same way instead of referring to a lifespan?

Thank you so much for this observation, you are absolutely right and I sincerely apologize for not catching this. So the miraculous cures Jesus performed in Decapolis in another account, were they in behalf of Israelites or non-Israelites? Mark 7:31-37: "Then he returned from the region of Tyre and went through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee, in the region of the Decapolis. 32 And they brought to him a man who was deaf and had a speech impediment, and they begged him to lay his hand on him. 33 And taking him aside from the crowd privately, he put his fingers into his ears, and after spitting touched his tongue. 34 And looking up to heaven, he sighed and said to him, “Ephphatha,” that is, “Be opened.” 35 And his ears were opened, his tongue was released, and he spoke plainly. 36 And Jesus[h] charged them to tell no one. But the more he charged them, the more zealously they proclaimed it. 37 And they were astonished beyond measure, saying, “He has done all things well. He even makes the deaf hear and the mute speak.” I suppose there was a considerable Jewish presence in Decapolis. Any thoughts?

This statement makes sense. Interestingly, below is word for word what Ephesians 6:12 says in the Westcott and Hort interlinear. Of course the grammar is a little off because it is a word for word translation from the Greek, but this helps put things in perspective as far as your comment goes. Ephesians 6:12 (Westcott and Hort Interlinear): "BECAUSE NOT IS TO US THE WRESTLING TOWARD BLOOD AND FLESH, BUT TOWARD THE GOVERNMENTS, TOWARD THE AUTHORITIES, TOWARD THE WORLD MIGHTY ONES OF THE DARKNESS THIS, TOWARD THE SPIRITUAL (THINGS) OF THE WICKEDNESS IN THE HEAVENLY [PLACES]." So the verse doesn't seem to be describing flesh and blood "governments", but rather, invisible wicked spirit governments established under Satan's rule.

I found this interesting. What makes you sure that "Israel has Michael as a prince"?

Michael, thanks for your entire well-rounded response. I'd like to hone in on what you mention about the great tribulation tying it to the comparison Jesus gave of an unclean spirit coming out of a man (thus the house being swept clean) and then returning with seven spirits more wicked than itself. Jesus said that "this wicked generation" was that way. Was he referring to Israel until the future time of the end? In other words, would there be an apostate Israel in the future that would become worse than it was in the first century when it rejected Jesus Christ? Some believe that the Biblical evidence points to that conclusion: Luke 21:20-23: “And when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then you will know that the time of its destruction has arrived. . .For those will be days of God’s vengeance, and the prophetic words of the Scriptures will be fulfilled. . .there will be disaster in the land and great anger against this people." Any thoughts on this? Why will there be "great anger against this people"? Is it in any way tied to Matthew 12:43-45?

Jesus was about to expel an unclean spirit from a man, and something may be learned by the dialogue that ensued. Mark 5:8 -11: “Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!” And Jesus asked him, “What is your name?” He replied, “My name is Legion, for we are many.” And he begged him earnestly not to send them out of the country." Why didn't "Legion" want to leave Israel? Why did Jesus grant his request? Unclean spirits seem to have power over certain regions and have resisted powerful angels in the past: Daniel 10:13: "The prince of the kingdom of Persia withstood me twenty-one days, but Michael, one of the chief princes, came to help me, for I was left there with the kings of Persia." Daniel 10:20: "Then he said, “Do you know why I have come to you? But now I will return to fight against the prince of Persia; and when I go out, behold, the prince of Greece will come." At Matthew 12:43-45, some Bible commentators believe that Jesus was referring to the nation of Israel in the past, whereas others believe that there may be some sort of application of it in the future since the verses refer to the unclean spirits returning. Matthew 12:43-45: "When the unclean spirit has gone out of a person, it passes through waterless places seeking rest, but finds none. Then it says, ‘I will return to my house from which I came.’ And when it comes, it finds the house empty, swept, and put in order. Then it goes and brings with it seven other spirits more evil than itself, and they enter and dwell there, and the last state of that person is worse than the first. So also will it be with this evil generation.” Here are my questions for you: What did Jesus mean with the words "this evil generation", was he referring to a specific nation or something else? If he was referring to a nation, when in history did the unclean spirit return with "seven other spirits more evil than itself", or is it pointing to the future instead of the past? Lastly, which area on earth are the unclean spirits most interested in today?

Amos 3:7: "For the Lord God does nothing without revealing his secret to his servants the prophets."

This is very true. And at the same time, I'm sure you'd agree that there are many things that we don't know that God wants us to know. Colossians 1:9, 10: ". . .We have not ceased to pray for you, asking that you may be filled with the knowledge of his will in all spiritual wisdom and understanding, so as to walk in a manner worthy of the Lord, fully pleasing to him: bearing fruit in every good work and increasing in the knowledge of God." Psalm 51:6: "Behold, You desire truth in the innermost being, And in secret You will make wisdom known to me.." Jeremiah 33:3: "Call to me and I will answer you, and will tell you great and hidden things that you have not known." Psalm 25:14: "The friendship of the Lord is for those who fear him, and he makes known to them his covenant." Proverbs 2:3-6: ". . .If you call out for insight and raise your voice for understanding, if you seek it like silver and search for it as for hidden treasures, then you will understand the fear of the Lord and find the knowledge of God. For the Lord gives wisdom; from his mouth come knowledge and understanding." Matthew 7:7, 8: “Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, and you will find; knock, and it will be opened to you. For everyone who asks receives, and the one who seeks finds, and to the one who knocks it will be opened."

Jesus spoke of a time when nation would rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom. (Matthew 24:7) Daniel chapter 11 describes major conflicts between east and west and then between north to south. Jesus spoke of Christians being killed and persecuted. (Matthew 24:9) Daniel describes something similar. (Daniel 11:33) Jesus spoke of the abomination of desolation. (Matthew 24:15) Daniel wrote about the abomination of desolation. (Daniel 11:31) For those of you that believe that all of Daniel 11 will be fulfilled in the future, have you found any other parallels between what Jesus said about the end times and Daniel chapter 11?

The entire Bible has been translated into 704 languages as of September of 2020. The New Testament has been translated into an additional 1,551 languages and Bible portions or stories into 1,160 other languages, so at least some portions of the Bible have been translated into 3,415 languages according to Wycliffe Bible Translators.

I appreciate all of your responses. Did Jesus take away the sins of "his people" already? The apostle Paul seems to be pointing to the future when he speaks of 'taking away their sins'. (Romans 11:25-27) Romans 11:25-27: "For I do not want you, brothers and sisters, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; 26 and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.” 27 “This is My covenant with them, When I take away their sins.” Are Matthew 1:21 and Romans 1:27 pointing to the same future event? Your thoughts?