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AllforJesustheLord

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About AllforJesustheLord

  • Birthday 09/21/1976

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  1. The Peshitto also does not not have the one verse in Acts, and I may be understanding correctly, or maybe not, but I think the Peshitto also does not have the women who committed adultery, I am not sure, but I think it is not there also, I have had a difficulty in understanding what is being said in the Peshitto about the women who committed adultery.
  2. I have come to a pretty positive conclusion. That is the Byzantine texts, and the Textus Receptus are the correct ones, and if we receive them we can, and are able to see the perfect will of God. Yet some have come to different understandings which are pretty much the same meanings in different texts. Thus the Peshitta is correct yet has some things missing, and thus that is why the western Peshitto was made, and updated the Peshitta, so much so that The Peshitto agrees with the Byzantine majority texts. Also the other Greek texts sometimes have different meanings, but they are the same meanings none the less, unless they have something missing. For instance Spirit is one word in Greek, and breath is another in Greek. Yet in Hebrew, and Aramaic Spirit, and Hebrew have One Word seemingly they are said differently, yet they have the same meanings. Breath, and Spirit. So when we see Spirit in Greek does that mean we can not understand Spirit as breath anymore, no we can still see breath is Spirit also, we can understand more about God, who He is, and how He does things. Thus the meanings if we understand them by God's Spirit we can see they all go together as long as they are the same in staying with what The Byzantine text says. Somethings are said in a different way, yet mean the samethings. There are somethings missing in The Peshitta, 2 Peter, 2, & 3 John, Jude, Revelation, probably they were not known at that time, and that is why they were not put in. Yet in the Peshitto The Syriac orthodox church put them in, as they should be in the scriptures.
  3. My friends I am discovering many things, finding out much, yet I still need to know more in order to correctly understand God's perfect will, to know without any doubt what is God's will. Thus I do now see more of what I did not understand. There are three options that I see right now. Either The Greek text is correct by itself, or the Peshitta is correct by itself, or both compliment each other. The Greek showing things in a very focused way, and the Aramaic showing things in a very wide way. For instance if we took the Greek, and translated exactly into Hebrew, and/or Aramaic, then there would be more meanings to words. Do you see both would be correct if it was exact it is only that in that case the exact words mean what Greek does, but also mean other things, because more meanings come out of Hebrew, and/or Greek. In that case both would be correct. I am searching, and do not know what perfection is regarding The Peshitta, I also see the person on this web site has some wrong ideas about what both The Majority texts, Byzantine texts, and the Peshitta, He is not understanding somethings in each of the different texts. Father into The Name of Jesus Christ which is Your Sons name, and Your Name please lead us into all truth. Amen.
  4. I agree exactly. I want to know the truth all which is in Jesus Christ our Lord, and God to obey Him. I know I do not know everything about the Aramaic texts, that is why I am seeking to understand, so that if I seek God's will I will find His will, also I will know more of how to help, and love other people, and to love God moreso no matter what the outcome of my decision is, because I trust Jesus Christ will lead me into all of Himself.
  5. Aramaic was the first language. It was the language of the Assyrians, the 2nd world empire (the first was Egypt). Hebrew came later and became the language of Israelites. Due to the captivity, the Israelites changed to Aramaic which they spoke at the end of the OT, and throughout the NT times, and even until recent times, Aramaic was still the language of the "Jews" until last century when they made a concerted effort to return to Hebrew. Some explanation about Aramaic, that I just found out about.
  6. The definition of original text could mean what text is Jesus speaking.
  7. I do not know what Lamsa wrote I am not going by what He said, so much as I am going by what the author of the book said in the web site. This is a different person, and so far in many understandings of what The Aramaic Words give they seem to be more true then any one Greek word. I do see many of the New Testament books were written to Greek people first, and were sent to them first. Thus to begin with they were probably written in Greek. Some books maybe are first written in Hebrew, and/or Aramaic though. I was thinking about one group of people kept the majority text going, and the others were lost for a while, at least most of the minority texts were, I am not sure about the Syriac, I think it was though. I think it was discovered along with the many other minority texts of Greek in the 1800 - 1970. The Syriac is Greek for Aramaic, and is about the Assyrian Aramaic. In all those thoughts I then start to think about, if both are true, then what purpose could God have in having the Aramaic Versions, I have come to think God knows Hebrew, and/or Aramaic is more of a deep language then Greek. Generally Greek means One thing, and Hebrew, and/or Aramaic means more then however many meanings Greek has. Thus The language God choose to use for so long shows more of the perfect intention of God. Although the Greek that was written in The majority text which is used to make the KJV. The Majority texts is the only texts that we have not lost throught out all time, and thus is God Word, but God can show His Word more clearly to us, and that is why I believe He is showing the Aramaic may be a route to understand scripture put together in all understandings. Thus showing the minority texts which were lost until around 1900's which are quite often thought to be older then the Majority texts, or at least most of them. Showing they also have scripture, showing they also do not have to be rejected, showing the Aramaic brings all understandings of each scripture together, so we could have a easier way to understand what is given to us already.
  8. I guess I would say He spoke in there language, in greek, thus we can look at the two main Greek texts, the majority texts, and the Minority texts, and we can see for the most part in them when they are different, that is because the Greek spoke of different truths, which are summerized in the Aramaic. Normally in the Aramaic the Aramaic words show, more then one meaning. For instance Luke 13:24 either in Greek has gate, or door. The Aramaic word "tarea" can be translated as both door, and gate. Thus both are true, The Aramaic shows both the Greek Translations are correct, but adds them together to make them fully correct. Romans 8:24 In Greek texts either to hope, or wait. In Aramaic ("saky") can mean both. John 3:15 In Him, on Him, or into Him. The one Aramaic letter when added, or atached to the beginning of a word means "By, into, in, inside, etc". Thus The Aramaic with the full word means In Him, On Him, through Him, into Him, etc.. So the thought is different texts were used, or different words were used to understand what was fully being explained. Thus The Aramaic Words explain fully what is meant.
  9. Well we can probably understand YeHuSHua mainly spoke Aramaic which is the street language of Hebrew, and there is still a text that is Aramaic around. Look into this, and download the free book, and let us discuss. www.aramaicpeshitta.com I am believing this is God's scriptures more so then any Greek text. The Aramaic is more indepth.
  10. Well when I look at the scriptures which Christ says if you have seen me you have seen The Father I think in what ways can this be true. So I say in word, deed, and in action, and in Spirit. So then the only way Christ The Word, and Son is less then The Father is in the physical flesh itself. So God was manifest in the Flesh... The Word of God is God, and is in God, and God is in Him, That means The Word is God The Father. The Word of God is His Word, and He The Father is The Word. Sometimes it appears God speaks to Himself. What is happening well I think God is so complex He thinks to Himself, and thus sometimes speaks to Himself, and accomplishes things Himself. Thus The Son is The Father manifested in The Flesh, because His Word is The Father. Let us look at it in a different way. I will relate scripture with scripture. I am crucified with Christ nevertheless I live yet not I but Christ lives in me, and the life which I live I live by the faith of The Son of God who loved me, and gave Himself for me. So then when I have The Holy Spirit inside of me, I cease to live, but if I sin it is sin dwelling in my flesh, and not me, I become one with The Spirit, and the Spirit is The Spirit of Jesus Christ, and the Spirit of Jesus Christ is Jesus Christ. Since I no longer live, and Christ lives in me, I am not doing the works, but Christ who is The Father through His Word is doing The Works thus Christ is living, and I am in Him, and He in me, so I cease to exist, because I died, and thus Christ alone lives in Me, and thus, I also see if I am in Christ, and He in me, then The Father dwells in Christ, and Christ in The Father. When Christ said the scripture about if you have seen me then you have also seen The Father, then we can see the scripture nevertheless I live, yet not I also applies to Christ, meaning The Father who is Christ is who was living inside of Christ, thus The Father, and The Word, and The Holy Spirit are all The Father, He is The One God. We see The Son, The Word of God as separate because He has flesh, and that is the Only reason, because The Word is God. He and God are One.
  11. I agree brother. It was the RCC that started the Idea that God is three separate persons or people. God is one and not three people. God is a Spirit that has Soul and Body which make up one person or God. Spirit = Holy Spirit Soul = Father Body = Jesus ______________ = One God Isa 42:1 Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. -- God We are also a Spirit that has a soul and body just like our Father yet we are one like our Father. Spirit = The part of man that operates in a spiritual realm. Soul = Operates on a Mental realm. Body = Operates on a Physical realm. ________ = One Person 1Th 5:23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. -- Paul Now I am also a triune being but yet I am still one. All three of these make up one me just as the Father, Word and Spirit make up one God. All three have a different purpose and different operations but yet they are all one not three persons. It is amazing so many understandings we get out of who God is. Certainly in order to understand all things about God we must receive all things which are true about God. So this is an extremely important issue. Many do not choose to look at all the possibilities though. This is why the scripture says Great is the mystery of Godliness, and goes on and says something like God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit... We know there is One God, we can see He has Word, and Spirit inside of Him. I believe the main question is His Word How is His Word Him, to what degree, and in what ways. Let us try to answer that, To what degree, and in what ways is His Word Him? I believe if we can understand this relationship, in understanding who The Word is in relationship to The Father then we can understand about the Holy Spirit also. We can with the mind of Christ understand all things about The Father, The Word, and The Holy Spirit.
  12. 9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father? 10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. 11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. 12 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father. 13 And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. So here we see Jesus said, if you have seen me you have seen The Father. How do we as believers view this teaching. We can see there is The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit. So what understandings do we get from this scripture.?
  13. If people have a chance to receive Christ and do not God is just in punishing those who refuse Him.
  14. I have read both, but I see The Father, and the Word which is The Very Word of The Father, meaning The Word is the Word in Him, and yet separated from Him. In the beginning was the Word, that means He is God, and the Word was with God, is less then God yet is still in Him by being The Father's Word, and The Word is God. Think about this we are made in His image. That means we are us, and we have word in us, and we have spirit in us. This is who The Father is, He has Word inside of Him, and Spirit inside of Him, and yet He choose to separate Himself from Himself. Thus The Word is both separate from The Father, and is The Son, and is The Very Word of The Father so therefore is The Father. Do you understand.?
  15. Now here is how I see things. I see The Father is The Father, and The Son is The Father, and the Son, and The Holy Spirit is The Father, and The Holy Spirit. I see The Father is in control, and is over Christ, and The Holy Spirit, and they are separate beings in One sense, and The Father is His Word, and The Holy Spirit. I want to be more clear, but I think circular thinking is required to understand. So I go back, and forth. The Word of God is God The Father's Word inside of Him, and yet The Word was sent out of Him, so He The Son who is The Word is less then Him also. He The Word in the first understanding is Him though. Thus in the separation The Son alone is called Jesus Christ. In the other understanding of The Father being His Word, and The Word being in The Father, He The Word is The Word of The Father, and therefore is The Father is The Word. So the oneness can be explained in The Word being The Father, and being less then Him which makes Him The Son. The Father, and His Holy Spirit is The Father, but yet is less then Him also because He listens to Him. The Holy Spirit is The Spirit of God, which means in The separation, The Spirit which came from God, and also that means since He came from God He is The Very Spirit of The Father. In understanding The Holy Spirit came upon marry, we can see The Word went into her, by, and through The Holy Spirit, and yet The Holy Spirit is said to be The Father, thus in The Oneness The Holy Spirit is The Father, and created The Son in Mary, or put The Word in marry, and The Word is said to be The Sword of The Spirit, thus The Word, and The Spirit are One. Now the question is does a person need to be baptized in the understanding of The Oneness? Do we as people need to understand The Son is also The name of The Father, and The Holy Spirit, or can we choose the understanding of The Father, The Word, and The Holy Spirit being The separation, and get baptized in the separation, and can that be God's perfect will. This is both a question, and a comment, or statement.
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